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  5. "Bhí ailse chraicinn orm."

"Bhí ailse chraicinn orm."

Translation:I had skin cancer.

March 16, 2015



What part of speech is "chraicinn"? Is it an adjective form of the noun "craiceann"? Or is it genitive? In which case, why is it lenited?


Chraicinn is the lenited genitive form of craiceann. It’s lenited because its governing noun ailse is indefinite, non-genitive, singular, and feminine.


Wow. It never hurts to be reminded of the fact that every language is bottomless. That was a glimpse of an abyss that I'm not quite ready to explore. I'll just try to keep learning, and eventually I'll be ready for a little spelunking. :) But thanks for the answer!


It’s not bottomless, but sometimes it goes quite deep. ;*) Chraicinn also would have been lenited had its governing noun been definite, but then the lenition would have been due to it being definite (i.e. it would have been lenited even if it were governed by a singular masculine noun) rather than due to the case and gender of the governing indefinite noun.


Wouldn't "cancer of the skin" be a a correct translation?


“Cancer of the skin” would be a correct translation of ailse den craiceann, in which “skin” is definite. In ailse chraicinn, “skin” is indefinite.


So the adjective is always lenited if the noun is indefinite, and if it is definite, it's lenited only if it's femine. Am i getting close?

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