"Hon vet vad hon vill."

Translation:She knows what she wants.

March 16, 2015

This discussion is locked.


No ha after vill in this case?


This implies that what she wants is a verb here, not a noun.


So does "Hon vet vad hon vill" mean "She knows what she wants (to do)" and not "She knows what (thing/things) she wants", or both?


The latter is Hon vet vad hon vill ha, since

  • vill = want
  • vill ha = want to have

And, unlike in English, "want" cannot cover both.


I'm still not sure whether it means "she knows what she wants to know" or "she knows what she wants to do", or both?


I suppose technically it could mean the former, but as a native speaker my mind immediately went to the latter upon reading the sentence. If I wanted to say the former, I would say "Hon vet vad hon vill veta." to avoid ambiguity.


I got it, tusen tack! ^^


Why use hon instead of sin? Does that mean it is two different women?

  • 70

"Sin" is a possessive pronoun meaning her/his/its/their reflecting back on the subject.

"Hon" is a personal pronoun meaning she

In this case there is no possessive pronoun in the sentence. (She knows what she wants)


I understand now. Thank you.


I have the impression of having seen somewhere in the internet, that when one use e.g. ''vad'' or ''vem'' as relative pronoun, one should put a ''som'' right after it. So, according to what I read before, it should be: ''Hon vet vad som hon vill.''. Does that even make sense?


Sounds like an error to me, but it does work for vem: Jag vet vem som har gjort det 'I know who did it'.


But is that a must to use ''som'' with ''vem'', or I could just say: ''Jag vet vem gjort det.'' ?


You can't start a relative clause with vem. We use som for that:
'The man who is sitting there is my dad' - Mannen som sitter där är min pappa
You also can't add vem in the latter sentence.

The reason Jag vet vem som har gjort det works is that in this sentence, vem is not a relative pronoun, i.e. it does not refer to something that has been said in the clause previously. In Mannen som sitter…, som points back to mannen, who was mentioned. But for vem in Jag vet vem…, there is nothing like that to point back to.


I see that "vad" has the same form both as a relative and interrogative pronoun. Does "när" also stay the same?


Can we say "Hon vet det hon vill"?


No, if you write det som it would mean "She knows that, which she wants", but as it stands it's not grammatical.


Neither the Swedish nor the English phrase make clear whether the second hon refers to the same person as the first. In Hon känner henne väl, hon vet vad hon vill the second and third hon are different persons.


Is there any real difference in meaning between "Hon vet vad hon vill" and "Hon vet det som hon vill (ha)"? Also, is "som" only used after "vad" when the word "vad" is the subject in the relarive clause? For instance, "Han vet vad som gör ljud"


I am still confused when "vad som" and when "vad" is used. From what I understand "vad som" is used when its the subject of the sentence. But is there any intuitive way to know when which of the both is used?


I'm not 100% sure about this but if you take these two examples:

Jag vet vad som är bäst.

Jag vet vad han vill.

Without the "som" it has to introduce a new subject. In this case "han". Without the "som", the following verb is what the "vad" is doing. ...if that makes any sense.


In a post-truth mindset, I first thought this meant "She knows what she wants to know" :) (I guess that would be "Hon vet vad hon vill veta", right?)

Learn Swedish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.