tá doesn't imply gender! tá.... AICIv would be she has, and tá..... AIGE would be he has
I'm still a bit confused about the grammar. Direct to English, is this "is rice at him"?
Technically yes, in Irish possession is shown that way, but in English possession is shown with the verb to have.
"Got" is optional in English in this sentence construction, although in British English "has" is often "has got".
No, tá rís aige is correct; it literally translates as “Rice is at him”.
Irish doesn't use use Subject-Verb-Object as English does. It uses VSO. So if you see a sentence "Tá sí beag", while directly translating to something like "Is she small", it means "She is small.". Other examples include "Tá tú óg" (You are young) and "Tá sé mór" (he/it is big).
This is so confusing. English is not my motherlanguage and now i learn irish from it...
If someone knows latin it id a possessive dative... maybe it can help. It is like "the rice is for him"
Would someone please explain how this sentence fits into the VSO structure? Is the "rís" considered the subject?
As far as I understand, yes. Word for word, it translates to "Is rice at him." Correcting for the word order makes it "Rice is at him," with "at ___" being the way to show possession.
As far as I can tell, sentence structure can either be VSO, SOV, or OVS, depending on the particular construction. Is that right, or is actually all VSO?
tá is a verb. The subject of tá is the object of the verb "have" in English.
Irish, in common with languages like Russian, Korean and Hindi, among others, doesn't have a verb that means "have". Irish uses the phrasal verb tá ag for this purpose, and uses the preposition ag to indicate the possessor (the subject in English). Pronouns combine with prepositions, so aige indicates "he has", aici indicates she has, ag Pól indicates "Paul has".
Im learning this so i can be a bit diverse in the characters that are in my book when im older but it can be really confusing