The one alternative translation 'He would have offered us to drinks' is not English.
Corrected. Offered us a drink, bought us a drink, bought us drinks...are all accepted now.
He would have offered something to drink to us. Is this sentence correct ?
Thanks, I am french, "he would have baught us" = "il nous aurait acheté" not the same than "offert". In this case the best meaning is "he would have served us" or "he would have give us". Is there another word for "offert" in english ? Tanks
While French use "offrir" in this context, English may say "buy you a drink", understanding that it does not translate back to "acheter", but "offrir". Can I buy/offer you a drink?=Puis-je vous offrir à boire ? In a different setting, one would simply translate it as "Can I offer you a drink?"
If I am in a cafe (bar) with my friends then "je vous paye (offre) un verre" two sentence are correct. But if someone comes to my house never use "je peux vous payer un verre" but "je peux vous offrir un verre". Do you say "Can I buy you a drink" even at you home ?. I delived "buy" means "acheter ou payer"
In French, you should never use "payer" or "acheter" in such a context, i.e., one does not talk about the money. So the French use "offrir" which the common English counterpart to that (in public) is not offensive to say "can I buy you a drink?" In your home, you are not buying anything, but you certainly may say, "Can/May I offer you a drink". In French, both occasions use "offrir".
Sorry but in France, you CAN say to your friend "je te paie un coup ?" It is even the more comon question when you want offer a drink in a bar. In that occasion you rarely use "je t'offre à boir ?". But at home you say it but rarely "je te paie à boire"
Re: Sorry but in France. I guess things are changing in the French language, even in France. I have always been told that it is gauche to speak of "paying for/buying" something for someone in France.
How I say especially between friend. Other exemple If it is your friend's or brother's birthday you ask him "tu payes ton coup ?" I am 47 old and I can confirm you that there is a long time we use "payer un verre" between friends. Tanks very much for your comment, now I better understand that sentence in english
If you only hear the sentence in French, it could as well be "Ils nous auraient offert à boire"
Would even the liaisons in "auraient offert" and "aurait offert" sound the same?
You have posed a deep and imponderable question Brigitta. For reasons best known to francophones, 'à' or 'de' often precedes the infinitive. As to when to use which or no preposition at all remains a closely-guarded secret.
No. In English the "à boire" may be translated as "something to drink", "drinks", or "a drink", depending on the context of the original. In French, it is expressed in the infinitive.
This version (wrong) has been reported as "should be correct:" "He would have offered us a drink"
This is the second time that the translation is adding words. Does anyone see "quelque chose" or achéter" The translation should say" He would have offered us a drink" a la Duolingo, "precise" translation
The expression is idiomatic in French "vous offrir à boire" = to buy you a drink (or alternatively) "buy you something to drink". When using such expressions, it may be necessary to include words which do not literally appear in the opposite sentence.
The hints should reflect the idiomatic expressions, then - if the suggestions for "something" offer "quelque chose", which is then promptly rejected, the hints are incorrect and misleading.
To offer someone a drink is not the same as buying someone a drink. Offrir translates into English as 'offer' not 'buy' and the two should not be used interchangeably. This is not correct use of English : you would offer a drink at home or buy one in a bar; you could also offer to buy a drink but you would not use the word 'offer' - you would say " Can I buy you a drink?"
Question: why isn't the "offert" plural here. "offerts". Isn't the personal pronoun before the verb?
No because "nous" is an Indirect Object (COI) and not a Direct Object (COD). To avoid mistakes, ask yourself the question: Il aurait offert à boire à qui? (and not "il aurait offert à boire qui?")
Because "would have "should be followed by a past participle ! Which is " offered "
Excuse me again, why didn't offert get an 's' to be offerts? Isn't nous considered a direct object?
The conjugation of the verb is not usually affected by the object, but by the subject.
The "drink" is the direct object that is "offered". "Nous" ("to us") is the indirect object.
Hello all! In french, can this "passé conditionel" be used to refer to a PRESENT situation like in English or is it entirely referring to the past? For example, "I would have offered you a drink (NOW) but I left my wallet at home"
Oui..je t'aurais offret un verre mais j'ai lassié mon portefeuille chez moi..... desolé pour mes erreurs je suis un debutant en fraicaise