"Il nous aurait offert à boire."
Translation:He would have offered us a drink.
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If you only hear the sentence in French, it could as well be "Ils nous auraient offert à boire"
Would even the liaisons in "auraient offert" and "aurait offert" sound the same?
No. In English the "à boire" may be translated as "something to drink", "drinks", or "a drink", depending on the context of the original. In French, it is expressed in the infinitive.
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This version (wrong) has been reported as "should be correct:" "He would have offered us a drink"
This is the second time that the translation is adding words. Does anyone see "quelque chose" or achéter" The translation should say" He would have offered us a drink" a la Duolingo, "precise" translation
The expression is idiomatic in French "vous offrir à boire" = to buy you a drink (or alternatively) "buy you something to drink". When using such expressions, it may be necessary to include words which do not literally appear in the opposite sentence.
The hints should reflect the idiomatic expressions, then - if the suggestions for "something" offer "quelque chose", which is then promptly rejected, the hints are incorrect and misleading.
To offer someone a drink is not the same as buying someone a drink. Offrir translates into English as 'offer' not 'buy' and the two should not be used interchangeably. This is not correct use of English : you would offer a drink at home or buy one in a bar; you could also offer to buy a drink but you would not use the word 'offer' - you would say " Can I buy you a drink?"
Question: why isn't the "offert" plural here. "offerts". Isn't the personal pronoun before the verb?
No because "nous" is an Indirect Object (COI) and not a Direct Object (COD). To avoid mistakes, ask yourself the question: Il aurait offert à boire à qui? (and not "il aurait offert à boire qui?")
Because "would have "should be followed by a past participle ! Which is " offered "
Excuse me again, why didn't offert get an 's' to be offerts? Isn't nous considered a direct object?
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The "drink" is the direct object that is "offered". "Nous" ("to us") is the indirect object.
Hello all! In french, can this "passé conditionel" be used to refer to a PRESENT situation like in English or is it entirely referring to the past? For example, "I would have offered you a drink (NOW) but I left my wallet at home"
Oui..je t'aurais offret un verre mais j'ai lassié mon portefeuille chez moi..... desolé pour mes erreurs je suis un debutant en fraicaise
