Is this a phrase that's commonly used between Spanish-speaking people? Can someone provide a context that this phrase would be used in please?
Two women are visiting their friend; they knock on the door, the friend says "Who's there?" and they respond "Somos nosotras" which in English would be "It's us".
"It's us" makes sense...but this exercise also said this means "we are us." There is no time in English you would ever use the term "we are us."
The English in the translation is faulty. Should be "It is we." (Like "It is I"). One uses the subjective rather than the objective form of the pronoun.
"we are just females" is from "it is us." Say you (as a female) and another female were in a conversation, and someone asked, "Who are women?" "It is us (with the feminine "us," or in this case, nosotras.
i would assume "somos nosotros" would mean "it is us" if there was a guy in the group?
It does make sense - it means 'this particular group- we - are women.- as- It's just us - your girl friends - no men around.
Some things in spanish are irrational. In english this is true also, but why would one say good day, to mean good morning. And this, who say we are us. That is obvious.
I take spanish at school and I was taught that it's "nosotras somos" (the subject pronoun before ser). Is that the same thing as "somos nosotras"? If not, then which way is accurate?
"nosotras somos" means "we are" but "somos nosotras" means "it's us".
I don't understand why this doesn't translate as "We are". Would that be "nosotras somos" (i.e. the other way round)? If not, how would you say "We are"?