1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Spanish
  4. >
  5. "Veo a un hombre y a una muje…

"Veo a un hombre y a una mujer."

Translation:I see a man and a woman.

December 16, 2012



Why should we use "a" before un hombre and una mujer?


This is called "the personal a."

In Spanish, when the direct object is a person, it is preceded by the preposition "a." This word has no English translation, but it is required. For example "Yo veo Luis" is incorrect -- the correct translation of "I see Luis" is "Yo veo a Luis." However, you would say "Yo veo una silla" ("I see a chair") and not "Yo veo a una silla."

In case you're like me (who didn't know much about grammar before I started learning languages), the direct object "is the noun or pronoun that receives the action of the verb." For example, "cheese" is the direct object in the sentence "I eat cheese".

So, here are some more examples of the personal a in Spanish:

  1. Ella ama a Pedro (she loves Pedro)
  2. Ella ama los árboles (she loves trees)
  3. Yo muevo una silla (I move a chair)
  4. Yo muevo a Juan (I move Juan)


great explanation, just needs to be included in the notes in the notes so people have an actual grammar clue before they get started on it ;)


Wow! Great explanation! I agree with ulgane, a note would have been great. :)


This is an excellent piece of information that we ought to be learning alongside our regular practicing exercises on Duolingo. That's cleared up my problem with "the possessive a" really nicely: thanks :D


Does this apply to el nino and la nina too? what about their plural forms?


"Looked at a man" is in the past tense. In Spanish, it would be "Vi a un hombre".


In answer to 'gogobera' and 'joshstudyspanish' (I can't reply to your posts) - I think that 'look at' would use the verb 'mirar' rather than 'ver', from what I understand 'ver' basically means 'see' whereas 'mirar' means 'look at' (they are similar meanings, but different), so I think that "I look at a man" would be "(Yo) miro a un hombre" (but the 'a' is the 'personal a', not the 'at a') and "I look at a chair" would be "(Yo) miro una silla" (without the 'personal a').

I am not 100% certain on this, but I am fairly sure that I am right. It would be nice it someone could clarify or correct my answer as appropriate :)


How about "I look at a man" or "I am looking at a man"?

I also recall this "personal a" being used for people's pets, according to a discussion elsewhere on DL.


Thanks for your great explaination. But I got the same question as from gogobera, -How about " I look at a man''. ?


To reply to 'clawedinvader' (whom I also cannot reply to): we hear from Luis that when the direct object is a person, we use the Spanish 'a,' which makes some sense -- arbitrary, but it makes sense, just like most linguistic rules. The question is that 'a' pulls double duty as both meaning "the object is a person" and the preposition "at."

What if a sentence needs to communicate that the action is at a person!? We need 'a' for it being a person and 'a' for it being "at" them.

Of course, I imagine that the answer is that we use 'a' to indicate a person is the object, we use 'a' to indicate the preposition "at," and, finally, we can use 'a' to provide a preposition for "at a person," without any additional effort or linguistic hurdles.


Great explanation! Really helps a lot. This is what I like about duolingo, any gaps in knowledge are readily filled in by anyone knowledgeable enough.


That is a wonderful explanation. Thank you.


Thank thou Luis. That one threw me for a loop. It isn`t discussed anywhere before the translation comes up.


Thank you so much, that explains a lot. I was starting to get frustrated seeing "a" in these sentences and not knowing why.


so for my understanding it shld be.

a will appears after verb and before noun which is alive. ex. animal. peoples.

a wont appear after verb and before noun* which is not alive like furniture, food. (plants shld b consider as alive object but it is exceptional which is without a?)

it is correct?


It's not as broad as all things that are alive. It's mainly for people, but it can also used for pets (which we also have personal relationships with).

Veo la tortuga.

Veo a tu perro.


What happens when speaking to "you". Ex: "I see you", would that be "Yo veo a tu"? I know "I love you" can be "te amo" so, does the "a" get removed in reflexive forms?


I see you == Te veo [a ti]

This is the full chart, when using the "direct complement" (direct object):

Me veo [a mí]

Te veo [a ti]

Lo veo [a él / a ello]

La veo [a ella]

Nos veo [a nosotros]

Os veo [a vosotros]

Los veo [a ellos / a ustedes]

Las veo [a ellas]

Typical mistake even in Spaniards: confusing direct and indirect complements

Le veo [a él / a usted], Les veo [a ellos / a ustedes]

The mistake is so spread that it has been tolerated, but not considered right, the example above. Le & les have their own grammatical function different to lo & los.


if you want to learn more about de COD (complemento objeto directo) and COI (complemto objeto indirecto) there's a good explanation in this link: http://www.practicaespanol.com/es/objeto-directo-e-indirecto/art/208/


You need the "a" when referring to a person (in any way) as the direct object. This also applies to pets and occasionally other things you're personifying or expressing a personal relationship with.

You don't use it with forms of tener in the sense of having/possessing something (e.g. tengo hijos). But you do still use it in other senses such as (tengo a mis hijos en el coche).


I notice it is pronounced: "Veo a un hombre YA una mujer"? I listened to it many times, and it seems that y and a are prounced as ya? Is that correct?


No. The sounds are linked, but they remain different words.


Glad to know that the sounds are linked.


Why would a be used twice in a row? The clue says a means to, so it only makes sense that "Veo a un hombre y a una mujer" would mean "I see to a man and to a woman" seriously!


The "clue" isn't a clue, it's a literal translation of the word. However, in this context, it's special, more than just its literal translation, read the other answers if you want to know how.


It is needed only for Person (human) as direct object and not animals or any other direct object (animate or inanimate), is that correct?


Animals can be personalized too.


Luis thank you. I just saw an example of animals in the exercises!


Is it strictly required to use the "a" for "una mujer" here, or could the "a" for "un hombre" also cover "una mujer"? (Veo a [un hombre y una mujer].)

Learn Spanish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.