I believe this is a wrong explanation, and it's not how this tense is used in both languages.
If I may add my two cents:
What Arnauti is saying seems very wrong to me, because next week, tomorrow's event (which would already be in the past), would just be described by using the form: "He called (the next day)".
But the tense we are learning here is used when we're talking about two events in the future, where one precedes the other, and the order is important.
i.e. "I am going to the bank tomorrow at 11 AM, by which time my daughter will have called them to inform them that I am coming".
This is the right use of the tense.
I hope this helps.
What I meant was like this – let me show it as a timeline.
- today, when I'm speaking
- tomorrow, he calls
- next week, he has called
So I'm talking (today, at point 1) about a future event, 2, as seen from a point even further into the future, 3.
I think what you're saying is just another way of describing the same thing, but this is a bit tricky, so having more than one explanation can be very helpful.
Hope this helps, i would typically use this sentence when trying to reassure a person in a few situations. For instance, say my daughter wanted tickets to a concert and was unable to call and was relying on a friend. She may be worried that the friend had forgotten and i would say "He will have called, dont worry". Hope this helps to put this sentance into some context.
Ok, I did some searches, and maybe I can help Portuguese speakers: this seems to be futuro do presente composto do indicativo:
Ele ligará. (simples) => Ele terá ligado (composto)
It's a verb tense that is seldom used at least in Brazilian Portuguese (we tend to use the simple future), but maybe you try to recall it from the 8th/9th grades at school... ;)
Something simmilar might apply to other languages as well...
Supine is the form you used to form the perfect tense. The perfect tense is e.g. English have sung, have taken, that are different from sang and took. In English, the past tense and the perfect tense are often identical, as in called and have called, but they’re always different in Swedish. So ’called, rang’ is ringde whereas ’have called, have rung’ is har ringt.
Because "rang" is the past tense. We even have an entry on that in the FAQ. :)
Hi Tiffy..."he will have called" is the Future Perfect form of the English Verb "call" (verbix). Granted, it's not common as a standalone, but for lesson purposes it's a complete sentence as is and demonstrates the structure. (I try to remind myself that's why I'm here lol)
Borrowing from Glenn Campbell, "By the time I get to Phoenix, he will have called." ;-)