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- "Han kommer att ha ringt."
32 Comments
Sorry for the question, English is not my first language, but "he will have called" doesn't make any sense to me. "He would have called" would, instead. Can anyone clarify for me please?
1333
This is the future perfect, it's the tense used to describe future events as seen from a point even further into the future.
Let's say he will call tomorrow. Next week, that will be an event in the past, and then 'he will have called'.
I believe this is a wrong explanation, and it's not how this tense is used in both languages.
If I may add my two cents:
What Arnauti is saying seems very wrong to me, because next week, tomorrow's event (which would already be in the past), would just be described by using the form: "He called (the next day)".
But the tense we are learning here is used when we're talking about two events in the future, where one precedes the other, and the order is important.
i.e. "I am going to the bank tomorrow at 11 AM, by which time my daughter will have called them to inform them that I am coming".
This is the right use of the tense.
I hope this helps.
- 1333
What I meant was like this – let me show it as a timeline.
- today, when I'm speaking
- tomorrow, he calls
- next week, he has called
So I'm talking (today, at point 1) about a future event, 2, as seen from a point even further into the future, 3.
I think what you're saying is just another way of describing the same thing, but this is a bit tricky, so having more than one explanation can be very helpful.
Dear Arnauti you are right but usually in english language when they use future perfect, they clearly have two different verbs but in swedish expretions there are only one verb
And of course i think the first verb must be shown finished before the second verb takes place
Hope this helps, i would typically use this sentence when trying to reassure a person in a few situations. For instance, say my daughter wanted tickets to a concert and was unable to call and was relying on a friend. She may be worried that the friend had forgotten and i would say "He will have called, dont worry". Hope this helps to put this sentance into some context.
- 34
Ok, I did some searches, and maybe I can help Portuguese speakers: this seems to be futuro do presente composto do indicativo:
Ele ligará. (simples) => Ele terá ligado (composto)
It's a verb tense that is seldom used at least in Brazilian Portuguese (we tend to use the simple future), but maybe you try to recall it from the 8th/9th grades at school... ;)
Something simmilar might apply to other languages as well...
- 1713
Well, I mean - may one use ska ha or better to abandon this idea at all if it sounds weird? Is it used in real language?
Depending on the context, yes. It's not a question to which I can give an "always like this" or "always like that" answer. But like I said, it usually makes less sense to use it, since ska and kommer att work differently.
- 1713
You've puzzled me completely. Can you give a couple of examples where ska ha is suitable, and where it's not? Tack.
Only use ska ha if you mean something like "is supposed to have". For instance, de ska ha ringt tomorrow = they're supposed to have called (by) tomorrow.
Why is this "ringt"? Googling just tells me it's a "supine" and I have no clue what a supine is.
Supine is the form you used to form the perfect tense. The perfect tense is e.g. English have sung, have taken, that are different from sang and took. In English, the past tense and the perfect tense are often identical, as in called and have called, but they’re always different in Swedish. So ’called, rang’ is ringde whereas ’have called, have rung’ is har ringt.
Oh thanks, that helps a lot as well as helping me find what lesson it came under to read to notes.
Is Kommer att one of those things i just have to put in my mind somewhere? it seems it means both ''is going to & will have'' depending on what you are trying to say in the sentence. Kommer att ha - Is going to have? Kommer att - is going to then Kommer att ha - will have?
- kommer att = will, or is going to
- ha = have
- kommer att ha = will have, or is going to have
Does that make it clearer?
Why is "rang" not acceptable? "He will have rang" is a sentence I've used before in (NZ) Englishj
Because "rang" is the past tense. We even have an entry on that in the FAQ. :)
https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/20444477/FAQ-for-the-Swedish-course
"rung" is better in much of the Commonwealth, but the course is aimed at US English specifically.
Mmm it seems that It hasn't been explain very well. Any "perfect" tense is something finished, over, completed. So this tense is expressing something that will certainly occur in the future and completed by then, not now, not yesterday but any time in the future.
English is my first language. "He is going to have called" makes absolutely no sense. You can say either " he is going to call" or "he will call" (future). "He would have called, if he was going to" (present). "He called me" (past).
"I hope that when I get home, he'll have called to tell me the application was accepted."
Granted it sounds far less idiomatic to use "going to", but there's nothing inherently wrong with it. And "will" is the default translation.
Hi Tiffy..."he will have called" is the Future Perfect form of the English Verb "call" (verbix). Granted, it's not common as a standalone, but for lesson purposes it's a complete sentence as is and demonstrates the structure. (I try to remind myself that's why I'm here lol)
Borrowing from Glenn Campbell, "By the time I get to Phoenix, he will have called." ;-)
