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  5. "Onlar elma yer."

"Onlar elma yer."

Translation:They eat an apple.

March 23, 2015



Is the object (elma) always automatically plural if there is no "bir" before it?


Yes! You will get an explanation of this in the Food skill.


But it just accepted "They eat an apple." from me. Was that a mistake?


I had too hastily read his above comment. It does not automatically become plural, but it definitely can be plural, as long as it is indefinite.


Does it pehaps/sometimes become uncountable without bir, instead of plural?

As in:

I eat (some) apple.


Hello! Your comment answers to the first comment, ok i understand it, but it is about our sentence or it is a general comment? Thanks! t13


I supposed it was "They eat the apple."


That would be one HUGE apple!


No it would be "They eat an apple"


why? Oh, that would be elmayi, nevermind


why is onlar elma yer and not onlar elma yerler? Is there a difference?


Both are equally correct. If you have a plural subject, you do not have to use the -ler on the verb.

Onlar yer=Onlar yerler=Yerler but =/= yer :)


is the translation correct? I thought they eat an apple was "Onlar bir elma yer" . I'm confused.


of course it is correct!

you can always omit "bir" for a/an unless you want to stress it, and unless there is an adjective. And actually usually it is even weird to use it, like when you are talking about profession, gender etc

however, if it were "they eat a red apple", we would have had to say "onlar kırmızı bir elma yerler"


I am confused on when we consider an implicit a/an for an object. Could someone please describe? Do we always do that?


My Turkish friend just told me that "onlar elma yer" means "they eat apple", "onlar bir elma yer"=they eat AN apple and "onlar elmayi yer" = they eat THE apple


"they eat apple" is wrong in English, so our answer is actually correct :)

you can always omit "bir" for a/an unless you want to stress it, and unless there is an adjective.

if it were "they eat a red apple", we would have had to say "onlar kırmızı bir elma yerler"


Onthe pronunciation of the letter "r": Is there supposed to be a subtle - 's'-sound at the end of it? Because that is what I hear.


This is confusing to me as well. I hear a /ʒ/ sound ("zh") at the end. I have talked to my Turkish friends about this, but they deny it and tell me it is just an r!


Ha-ha, exactly. Turkish people always deny it, but that's what I hear too :)


I think it's beautiful. Some r's in Irish have sort of the same ending to them.


Silly question: should the lack of the "bir" imply that the noun is determined? Like "the apple"? I tried that solution and it wasn't accepted.


As far as I understand, no, the lack of ‘bir’ just means that you're not emphasising how many apples (it's similar to the difference between ‘I eat one apple’ and ‘I eat an apple’). If you wanted to indicate determination you could use the ending ‘yı (i/u/ü)’, yielding ‘onlar elmayı yerler’, but this is only true for direct objects.

[deactivated user]

    It is not correct guys, as I am Turkish native speaker, pronunciation is shit and additionally, no Turkish guy can understand this sentence when they hear it. Moreover, "bir" is not alternative to the article in English. Because, there is not any article in Turkish language, "bir" means one as a number. If you say "I am eating an apple", Tranlation is "Ben elma yiyorum" not with bir.


    If you tap "elma" you can see "apple" or "an apple" under it.. so no need to "bir" before "elma" ;)


    bir = a/an, right? So if I don`t see -bir- (Onlar elma yer), I should translate without -an-, right?


    You only need to include "bir" if there is an adjective. "elma" by itself could mean "apple, an apple, or the apple"


    But it does not accept "They eat the apple." That puzzles me.


    the apple, an apple, apple (nominativ) - elma an apple(accusative) - elma the apple (accusative) - elmayı They eat the apple (accusative). = Onlar elmayı yer. They eat an apple (accusative). = Onlar elma yer.


    Juraj_Pechac, you are rigth when you write that "they eat the apple"="onlar elmayı yer", "elmayı "="elma" at accusative case. But not rigth when you write "they eat an apple"="onlar elma yer", "elma" at "accusative" case. "Elma" is at nominative case, because it is an indefinite apple. Did you mix your words?


    Onlar elma yer - elma is general direct object

    Onlar elmayı yer - elmayı is specific direct object

    What is the Accusative Case? The accusative case is used to signal the direct object (the thing that is being acted upon). ​We also use the accusative case after certain verbs and prepositions.

    The questions for the accusative case are Who?/Whom? or What?


    Remember, native speakers think differently. They eat chicken (Onlar tavuk yer) makes sense in English as well as we eat pasta (Biz makarna yeriz). Chicken generally needs an -s for pluralisation but the context says otherwise here as we can tell they mean chicken in general in an undefinable amount. Same with pasta, which is very unclear whether that is singular, plural, what is A pasta? İs it a plate or an overall type? İs it a noodle? They eat apple however makes no sense in english as we would say They eat apple-s. Turkish grammar isn't as arcane however so elma does not need pluralisation here (elmalar) as they do not have different words for different amounts (goose, geese / mouse, mice / fish, fish). So even though it sounds incorrect reading it back in eglish in your head, it does make sense to native speakers as their visualisation of things (for lack of a better word) are slightly different.


    What is the difference between "Onlar elma yer" ve "Onlar bir elma yer" ?


    There is none, other than that "Onlar elma yer" can mean "They eat apples" and "They eat an apple," which "Onlar bir elma yer" can only mean "They eat an apple"


    So when we change a noun into the plural form we don't change its form, not like English when we add -s for example...


    Well, in some cases. Specifically, general direct objects do not take this plural suffix unless they are preceded by an adjective.

    Subjects, specific direct objects, and general direct objects preceded by adjectives do that the plural suffix (-lar/-ler)


    They eat an apple =onlar bir elma yer


    vajl, an-one apple for several persons! The apple should be very big! Here apple is not definite, each person could eat one apple, but any apple, not specific apple. So, no article nor number.


    why the 'yer' is not added with 'ler' behind it to make 'yerler'


    this question is answered above, please always read other comments before asking, otherwise the discussion get too crowded and nobody can find answers easily. When you say "onlar", -ler at the end of the verb is optional. If you want to omit "onlar", you have to use it. So "Onlar yer", "Yerler" and "Onlar yerler" are all correct


    Here you explane better than above.


    What's wrong with "they eat the apple"? I was told that a lack of any defining sentence structure like a suffix on "elma" or using "bir" before hand means that it can translate to both "the apple" and "an apple" (or rather it doesn't mean quite that in Turkish, but we have to pick one in English). Am I wrong? If so, I think Duolingo needs to update their notes


    That's true in general, but not when the word in question is the direct object. A definite object would have to be in the definite accusative case, taking the suffix -(y)I. However, an indefinite object in Turkish is not specific for number, so the sentence above can mean both ‘they eat an apple’ and ‘they eat apples’. ‘They eat the apple’ would be ‘elma yerler’; ‘they eat the apples’ instead would be ‘elmaları yerler’.

    In case you're unfamiliar with this course's shorthand for suffixes: ‘(y)’ is a buffer consonant, only used when the word ends in a vowel; ‘I’ signifies four-way vowel harmony: ı-i-u-ü.


    Sorry This is not logical The indefinite article in turkish gives an imperfect noun. No article would suggest either just apple - cant remember what that part of speach is called perhaps someone could enlighten me - or the apple At no point so far have we been the definite article which could lead the student to believe that it does not exist.


    There is no article per se in Turkish, but there are ways of making nouns definite, which would be translated with a definite article in English (‘the’). Direct objects are assumed to be indefinite (and also not specific for number) when they have no ending (‘elma’), but definite when they have the ‘accusative’ ending -(y)I (→ ‘elmayı’). In general, adjectives (when not followed by an indefinite marker like ‘bir’) make a noun definite: ‘kırmızı elma’ = ‘the red apple’ (as a subject, but as a direct object this would still need the accusative ending to be correct: ‘kırmızı elmayı’); ‘kırmızı bir elma’ = ‘a/one red apple’.

    What this all means in the end is that there are four ways to mark ‘apple’ for definiteness and number in this sentence:

    • elma yerler’: unmarked → ‘they eat an apple’ or ‘they eat apples’;

    • bir elma yerler’: marked as indefinite singular → ‘they eat an/one apple’

    • elmayı yerler’: marked as definite singular → ‘they eat the apple’;

    • elmaları yerler’: marked as definite plural → ‘they eat the apples’.

    If the object is indefinite it cannot be marked for plural, so ‘onlar elmalar yerler’ would simply be ungrammatical.


    They eat the apple???


    A definite object in Turkish takes the accusative suffix: ‘-(y)I’, so your sentence would translate to ‘onlar elma yer’.


    What is the difference between onlar and biz


    onlar - they, biz - we


    Nabeelawkhan, have a look at the notes of Selcen about personal pronouns and others: https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/7736569. You wiill get an owerview of pronouns topic.If you look for "Pronouns in Turkish grammar" or "Personal pronoun in Turkish grammar", you will find o lot of other sites.


    Ok, I am kinda confused.. Since there's no «bir», shouldn't this translation be like: «They eat the apple.»?


    Pasquale, the answer to your question is in the comments above. Please take the time to read them. Thanks.


    Mad at this because it coat me my last heart. And i don't think that "they eat the apple" is wrong. There was no" bir" to show that "an" was needed!


    When you put "the" it becomes accusative and so elma becomes elmayi so if you wrote the apple you would be wrong


    Ye means eat and yer means eats , we use singular verb with plural subject and in this case Onlar means "They" and they is plural subject so why are we using " Yer" instead of " Ye" that means " Eat" ?


    I choose firsly the apple, why this is not true here?


    Burakdeniz, Ly_mar answers to your question several times in his/her/their comments above. Please, take the time to read them. I hope you can. Thanks.


    They eat an apple

    [deactivated user]

      they eat Apple


      FatimaAsif, no "they eat Apple" is not correct in English. We have to use the indefinite article "an" because it is indefinite apple, direct object of the verb "yer". Anyway, Duolingo' s translation is "they eat An apple". It could also be "they eat apples".


      aren't they usually add bir to indicate that it's AN apple??


      why 'an apple'. we don't have 'bir' in this sentece...so it must be the apple


      Why there is no Bir before the Elma but in translation it's an apple?!


      An apple=Bir elma. !!!!!


      Why is it not "onlar elma yerLER"?


      Someone explained in a different thread that "yer" is used when they eat together while "yerler" when they do it separately. Or vice versa :)


      If 'yerler', do you mean that each of them eat their own apples? Or they can eat one apple but not simultaneously? :-)


      This is how I understood it too :) Given that assumption they must be really eating one huge apple standing in circle around it and biting it simultaneously.

      Can't find where I saw that explanation though. This may be totally wrong :)


      I could have sworn the Turkish word for eat was "yemek yemek"


      Well, near the bottom of the notes to the first skill (lessons 1-4), “yemek” is shown as the infinitive form — i.e., ‘to eat.’


      Is 'l' not pronounced in Onlar? I couldn't figure out.


      Yes, it's pronounced.


      I am confused. When we use Onlar Yerler and when Onlar Yer? And What about Onlar Icer?


      it should be "Onlar bir elam yerler"


      As explained below: that's an option, but it doesn't have to be ‘yerler’. With human referents, both singular and plural third person can be used: ‘onlar yer’ and ‘onlar yerler’. ‘-ler’ would only be necessary if the subject weren't present and thus the number could only be inferred from the verb (as in ‘elma yerler’; instead ‘elma yer’ would be understood as singular).

      Keep in mind that for nonhuman subjects adding ‘-ler’ to the verb is ungrammatical (when the subject is explicit), so only ‘kediler içer’ is correct.


      Why does it is 'the apple' instead of 'a apple'?


      Take time to read all the comments above, please. I'm sure you'll find the answer.


      Is really "yer" the right grammar? Shouldn´t it be "Onlar bir elma yiyorlar"


      Ulrika, "onlar bir elma yiyorlar/yiyor" = "they are eating an apple", the verb "yer" here is at the continuous tense. In "Onlar elma yer", the verb "ye-mek" is at the present simple tense.


      Does Onlar elma and Onlar elma yer mean the samething?


      SyedMohamm, "onlar elma yer"="they eat an apple or apples" when indefnite apple-apples (as it is explained very clearly in several comments below). "onların elmaları"= "their apples", "onun elma"="his apple". "Onlar elma" alone means nothing. Haven't you forgot the verb?


      Sometimes they use 'yer' and sometimes they use 'yerler' with onlar, what to use when?


      If you omit the subject "onlar" from a sentence, you have to add the -ler/-lar so you would have to say "yerler". In the opposite case, you are free to use either. However, if you want a more specific detail about yer vs. yerler (I tell through this example, not for this specific example), yerler might sound more explanatory/encyclopedical/informed etc.


      can we say onlar elma yerler


      Yes, it is another correct answer.


      Bır elma not elma only


      Mohammad, it coud also be "apples". The context will say us which one. Please take the time to read all the comments. Several people ask the same question as you. Thanks.


      From where "an" came it should be "they eat apple"


      ph.Taye, in English we say "they eat apples" or "they eat an apple", nothing else. "Elma" in Turkish means "an apple" as well as "apples". Read Selcen's excellent explanations on plural in Duolingo Turkish Grammar Portal. Thanks.


      Would it be wrong to put yeriz instead of yer here?


      (They eat Apple) isn't it the same (they eat an Apple)?does the "an" makes diffrent?


      Onlar means " they "


      اگر ترجمه به صورت an apple آورده شود پس در صورت سوال نیز باید از کلمه bir استفاده شود.


      When does the 'r' pronounce 'sh' sound and when does it pronounce 'r' sound?


      Pronounciation of elma?L is not spoken?

      [deactivated user]

        onlar means they elma means Apple yer means eat


        Don't need the "bir"?


        Why does the lady pronounce yer as Yesh


        Why do you translate "They eat an apple" and not "They eat the apple"? There isn't "bir elma"....thanks


        Is "They eat apples" also correct? After all, apple is used generic here, isn't it?


        Why does 'Onlar elma yer' translate to 'They eat AN apple' but 'Onlar su içer' translates to 'They drink water'??


        An apple is bir elma.


        I gave a "wrong" answer because duolingo only accepts that: an apple is bir elma, elma means the apple because Turkish doesn't have definite article.


        "They eats apples." Isn't correct answer?

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