1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Turkish
  4. >
  5. "Şekeri ben yerim."

"Şekeri ben yerim."

Translation:I eat the sugar.

March 23, 2015



Why is "ben" not at the beginning of the sentence?


if you have an accusative object, you can place the subject after it to emphasize that it was THIS PERSON who made the action.

For example, if somebody asks "Who ate the sugar?" it would be very awkward to say "Ben şekeri yedim" or "şekeri yedim." You should say "Şekeri ben yedim."


So the word closest to the verb is emphasized, generally?


I wonder if the same rule applies to all SOV languages outside of the Turkish language family. In Persian we say "Shekar ro MAN mikhoram" to emphasize like in Turkish.


Not the case in Japanese. The topic is pretty much invariably placed in the first position of the sentence.


Yep, but in şekeri ben yerim, "ben" is not the topic, it is the focus. Şekeri would be the topic. Many languages have a tendency to place the topic at the beginning and the focus later.


Actually it is the case in both Urdu and Japanese which I both speak.

砂糖は私が食べた (Satou wa WATASHI ga tabeta) Watashi is emphasised

And in Urdu:

Cheenee MEHNE kahi hai Mehne is emphasised.


????? Thanks for the insight, Victor


No. In urdu/hindi to emphasize the subject it would remain at the beginning "MEIŃ shakkar khata huń"


Seker kis ne khaya? Seker mein ne khaya. Seker is in the beginning


But then there would be still emphasis on the subject if we say "Shakkar MAIN khata hoon" Your sentence is more like a general information and it also depends on the tone we say it in. The sentence I've written will put emphasis on the subject no matter the tone.


It can be said both ways though, just like in Turkish


I don't think so.. "Mein shakkar khata hun"

Now emphasize this:

"Shakkar mein khata hun" Both are correct but second one seems like someone is emphasizing on what he do.


من ایرانی ام و این توضیح شما عالی بود


زبان ترکی خیلی شبیه زبان ماست


En français, je peux traduire "sekeri ben yerim" par "moi, je mange le sucre" en english "I just love it" That insist on the emotion, the good sensation, strong feeling eating sugar. In french, i translate "ben sekeri yerim" by "yes i eat sugar" because eat sugar is commonplace.


Tant mieux si ça marche pour vous, Marianne ! (Good stuff if that works for you, Marianne)


En réalité je suis un peu perdue, je fais ça intuitivement...ce sera plus précis plus tard.


So a correct translation of this sentence would be 'It is me that eats the sugar?'


I wouldn't put too much hope in Duolingo's accepting that, but that's the idea.


Your sentence would be 'Şekeri yiyen benim'.


He's trying to express emphasis on the ''I'' in English through text, something we really can't do unless we add more words.


Basically just talk like Yoda from Starwars and you'll be a Turkish expert


Hahhaha noted, this is.


Doesn't it also mean 'The sugar eats me' this way though?


No, that would be "Şeker beni yer"


Is that because "me," beni would be the accusative object of the man-eating sugar?


finally, my question is answered

[deactivated user]


    Is the verb "yerim" or "yedim"? Are these alternating, equivalent forms, perhaps dialectal?


    Yerim - I eat. Yedim - I ate. It's just a past form.


    So does that apply to all sentences using the accusative, or just ones where you would want to emphasize the subject? In other words, is it always awkward to "ben sekeri yerim"?


    No, it is not awkward at all to say "Ben şekeri yerim.", but it just has a slightly different meaning. As you say it is about the emphasis. If you say "Ben şekeri yerim." (which is the regular SOV order), the emphasis is on "şekeri". I think it is safe to say that in Turkish the component right before the verb is always the one with the strongest emphasis. If you want to put extra emphasis on the subject, you place it before the verb instead of its usual place (the beginning of the sentence).


    Which means that generally both are accepted with a wide brush, especially when it comes to us beginners and we can get away with alternating between tbe two in common conversations.


    thanks, now it's clear


    Any word you put just before the verb is the emphasized one.


    Why would it be very awkward ? (I really can't figure out why) & Why yedim not yerim ?


    Her example was in the past tense, hence "yedim" and not "yerim"

    That being said, if you want to stress something, it goes right before the verb. If you want to stress that I ate the sugar, the word for "I" (ben) must come right before the verb :)


    So why in the previos post they wrote: O portakalı yer?! Why they didnt put "O" after portakalı?


    Apparently "O portakalı yer" is the normal order but if you want to insist that it is 'he' as opposed to somebody else who is eating the orange, then the order is "Portakalı o yer". In the exercise above, "Şekeri ben yerim." has the word order "Şekeri" and "ben" reversed to insist that it is "I" and not someone else.


    I'm thinking the same, but i'm not turckish. Am'I right? How do you pronounce Ynotsnikwah?


    We coukd explain this with an example: 'Selcen şekeri yer' 'Hayır, şekeri ben yerim' Might add, I am not a native speaker, but is how I explained it to myself


    Hmmm. Just like persian


    What about ben portokalı yerim


    Why would it be awkward?


    Sizi buralarda da görmek çok hoş, Selcen Hanım :)


    What's the difference between yerim and yedim?


    Perfect explanation

    And i think that Turkish is more easier when it translated to Indonesian

    how i love Turkish so much


    So in that case it should have been in the context I believe this question is not appropriate because for us as learners it wouldn't make sense if you didn't say that


    Teşekkür ederim Selcen


    Thank you for the info.

    [deactivated user]

      I have the same doubt!


      Good explanation


      I think, we must write this sentence like this : Drink suger


      Afshin, sorry, but Duolingo translation is the only one correct.


      I do not understand why the word "the" is required in the translation. It looks like "I eat sugar" to me.


      no, that would be "Ben şeker yerim", no specific sugar, sugar in general. Please read the detailed tips and notes in the accusative skill


      So, in summary for those of us reading this on the mobile app without ready access to the tips and notes, the accusative case automatically marks it as a specific, definite ob


      Thanks! This was helpful as I was also wondering.


      thank you for actually being helpful!


      thanks,this answers my question.


      Yeah, I didn't see that section until after I'd completed the lesson. Sorry.


      The I at the end of şeker implies that is some specific sugar that we are talking about, so it will translate to 'the sugar'


      I think i got it but i'm not sure:

      "ben şekeri yerim" answers "what do you eat?".

      "şekeri ben yerim" answers "who eats the sugar?"

      is this right?


      Yes, you're right. This has been confirmed at least 7 times in the discussion here. (The word next to the verb is stressed)


      don’t you get confused if you want to say the sugar eats me ?


      No, because that would be 'Şeker beni yer.'.


      I think this can also mean i eat the sweet. In Turkish sweet and sugar are the same word.


      You are wrong.

      Sugar: şeker

      Sweet: şekerli or tatlı


      This is totally fine if you are referring to sweet as a noun and not as an adjective. For example, "My grandma made me sweets" or "I can only eat one sweet today." :) If it is an adjective though, it is what ufuk wrote above :)


      Why şekeri but not yaği, rather yağı?


      Look at this post about 4-way harmony! It all has to do with the final vowel in the word :)



      According to this rule,what will you say if you want to say 'I ate THE cake.'?


      I wrote withou the "the" and it didnt exwpt it


      That's normal the accusative object "şekeri" has been placed in front of the subject "ben" to emphasize "ben". Normally, as stated above, the sentence would read "Ben şekeri yerim" but for purpose of the emphasis the order is changed to "Şekeri ben yerim".


      So, can I still rearrange the sentence even if the object was not in the accusative case? Can I say for example "Bira ben içerim" to say " I drink beer" stressing that it is me who drinks beer?


      No, if the direct object is indefinite(has no accusative marker) you can't change the position of it. People would understand the meaning due to the '-im' suffix here(though it is still incorrect) but if the subject is third person this rule becomes more important.

      Balık karınca yer: The fish eats ants/an ant.

      Karınca balık yer: The ant eats fish/a fish.


      should I say, "the" before "sugar" to be right ?


      Yep, this is because it is a direct object in the accusative case :)


      For me it doesnt sound correct to say in English: I eat the sugar. But I guess this is just a direct translation. We would usually say I ate the sugar if you want to use "the", while "I eat sugar" seems find if it is a generality...anyone have thoughts on this?


      Every week my friend goes to the store and buys sugar. I then eat the sugar. :)


      The first part sounds ok to my ears, but the second doesn't sound natural to me. Probably because some languages use expressions/phrases differently and more commonly than in other languages. Thanks.


      Is there even the word "the" in Turkish?


      Turkish has no articles. But there is an indefinite adjective such as 'bir' somewhat corresponding to 'a/an' in English. But there is a grammatical category such as definiteness.


      please help me what is accusative case..... and why ben is not at start


      'şekeri' is in accusative case here. 'Ben' is nominative. And it can be at the beginning as well, no problem.


      my point is that what is accustive case i dont know grammer very well .. and secondly what is nominative..... please please help me......


      Nominative is the subject and accusative is the direct object of the sentence. For example, in the English sentence "The boy throws a ball" "boy" is nominative and "ball" is accusative.


      Why can't I use the plural here, as it is usually done?


      I am not sure from which langauge you are talking about here, so I will talk about both.

      "Şekerleri ben yerim" would mean "I eat the candies/sweets." If you want a plural specific direct object, you do have to use the plural suffix.

      "sugar" cannot be in the plural in English. Also, because "şeker" is in the accusative case, you know it must be a singular direct object.


      why is Şekeri means the sugar not sugar?


      -i here is not an indefinite article suffix but accusative marker. But accusative marker is used only when the direct object is definite, in Turkish. So to state that definiteness 'the' is necessary.


      The robot said the i at the end of Şekeri as if it was a dot-less i? Is that correct?


      No, it is şeker-i, no 'ə' sound here.


      is the article always necessary > I mean : I eat THE sugar. ?


      the? why did we added 'the'


      "şeker" is "sugar". "şekeri" is "the sugar" in the accusative form, moved in front of "ben" to insist on the fact that it is "I" who eats the sugar and not someone else. Read the comments above.


      Without a question this sentence just confuses learners.


      How I know that "the" is used or not


      Wow thanks all maybe now i get it by reading all comments


      Why cant you say without "ben"? Because yerim indicates that "I" have eaten


      I believe you can but in this case they wanted to put the focus on the fact that it is "I" who eats the sugar and in order to make that clear you need to interchange the subject and the object: "(ben) şekeri yerim" becomes "şekeri ben yerim".


      rus aksanı var. düzeltin lütfen


      Sekeri ben yerim or ben sekeri yerim ??


      "Sekeri ben yerim" emphasises the sense that it is "I" and not someone else who eats the sugar, "Ben sekeri yerim" seems to be the normal form where "sugar" is being focussed on, that is, "I eat sugar (as opposed to anything else)."


      The sugar? Im confused


      Pranavi, yes "the sugar" because we have " şekeri"=" şeker+i", "i" the accusative sufffix. In this sentence "the sugar" is a direct definite object, a specific sugar. In Turkish you need to use the accusative case, here "i" third person singular.


      Shouldn't "I eat sugar," be an acceptable translation in place of "I eat the sugar."?


      Darian, "i eat sugar"="şeker yerim".


      Why is it 'I eat THE sugar' not just 'I eat sugar'?


      I think it's like: A "Who eats the sugar?" or "How can anyone eat the/this sugar?" B "I eat the sugar." (slightly indignant)


      juackin, perhaps because it is a specific sugar, the sugar your mam has bougth yesterday, the sugar she needs to cook a cake...etc


      Ben bir türk olarak bu kadar cümleleri kötü okuyan bir insan görmedim normalde bizim dilimizde böyle okunmaz

      [deactivated user]

        Why is "I am eating the sugar" wrong answer here?


        Yes. "yerim" is the simple present tense. "yiyorum" is the present continuous. Turkish, like English, distinguishes between these two.


        If we're supposed to place the subject after the accusative object, then why in another part of this lesson are we told that the correct structure for 'I eat the cheese' is 'Ben peyniri yerim'? Why is it OK to put Ben first when eating cheese, but not when eating sugar?


        'Ben şekeri yerim.' is also correct. If it is not accepted, you can report it.


        I translated it like a bot: THE SUGAR EATS ME lol


        im struggling


        Breathe, drink some water, eat some sugar and come back to it.


        L2303, merak etme, don't worry, you will understand later, practicing more and more! Ok?


        i also write like that why is't wrong?


        'Sugar' ('şeker') is in the object/accusative form, 'şekeri'. The change of order (object-subject-verb) apparently puts stress on the 'I' ('ben'), that is, 'I do it', not someone else.


        There is no "the sugar" as well.

        <pre>171396 </pre>

        Gwynifer, the english sentence is "i eat THE sugar". In Turkish, "the sugar" is "şekeri", ("şeker"+"i" accusative suffix, with the transitive verb "yemek"> "yerim". As Ynotsnikwah explains clearly above . It is helpfull to read all the comments before asking. Ok? I do that since the beginning and i always find the answer i need.


        Sounds nothing like şekeri, sounds more like şekerdi


        Martin, dont worry! Myself, even after 9 months learning Turkish, i do not understand always what "she" is saying and i do wrong answers. But, each time, when i know what i had to hear, or later, i listen again and i understand very well. Do try!


        Telaffuz ne kötü What a bad prononsation


        In kurdish u have to say " MN shakrakam xward"


        I wrote this correctly.. but it said incorrect..why?


        Why when I translated it, The sugar I ate, it made me wrong


        "The sugar I ate" is not a complete sentence in English. It is a literal translation of the Turkish phrase, "Şekeri ben yerim". "The sugar" is the object, "I" is the subject which in this case is placed after the object and before the verb to stress that it is "I" who eats the sugar and not someone else. Turkish syntax (structure) is usually subject/object /verb whereas English syntax is subject/verb/object.


        ZdoctorZero, "the sugar i ate" would work in the sentence: "the sugar that i ate is very good": in this case "the sugar" is a subject, always at nominative case. I don't learn the past tense yet: it is translated on google by: "yediğim şeker çok iyi".


        Ynotsnikwah, vraiment bon! Mais avec modération! Is that what you want to know?


        And me give me a like plz


        I thought it meant "the sugar eats me"


        I eat the sugar??? Doesn't sound like proper English to me ...


        Q. Who eats (all) the sugar? A. I eat the sugar. OR Q. Should I throw out all this old food? Does anyone want any of it? A. I eat the sugar.


        okay, I understand that this translation is an option. Can "Şekeri ben yerim" also mean "I eat sugar" - or would that definately be an inaccurate translation? Well, I'm totally new here, so it is only now that I see that this has been discussed before ... pls bear with me ;)


        It DOES mean "I eat sugar" but the change in the word order to Object/Subject/Verb places emphasis on the subject "I" ("ben").


        If "I eat the sugar = Şekeri ben yerim" Ben şekeri yerim = ? If "I eat the sugar = Şekeri ben yerim" Why "I read the newspaper. = Ben gazeteyi okurum.


        "Şekeri ben yerim" is more like "It is I /me who eats the sugar". The order is changed to stress the "I".


        ynotsnikwak, do you know that site, about word order in Turkish: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Turkish_grammar#Word_order? They explain how word order can change in different ways. Very clear and usefull.


        Couldn't it be "The sugar I eat"?


        LanguageLe, you literaly translate the Turkish sentence. Do you say "the sugar i eat" in your own language?


        When do we use accousative and when we don't use?


        When do we use accusative and when we don't use it?


        Chernomorets, we use the accusative case when the object of the verb, here "the sugar" is definite and direct, with a transitive verb. "Yemek" is a transitive verb. We don't use the accusative case when the object is undefinite, unspecific,even with a transitive verb, as in "i eat sugar", any sugar. In this example: "i eat sugar when i'm tired". We don't know if it is brown sugar, white sugar...about the quantity, etc.


        Why is: "I ear sugar" wrong?


        BluePaperf, please, read all my answers to the same question as yours, in some of my comments above. Thanks.


        Omg l learn turkish and not understand the explan by english lol


        That's a pity! You have to learn English too. Will you?


        Is there any difference between when i would say şekeri yerim vs şekeri ben yerim?


        Joanna, no difference of meaning. But adding the personal pronoun before the verb is to stress that it is "me" who eats the sugar.


        Is it like- "the sugar was eaten by me" ??


        ashabilla, the mean is the same, but your sentence is aproximative English. And it would not be "was eaten" but "is eaten". Why to do complicated when it could be simple?


        Please give me a like and a lingot cuz I have 0 lingots and 0 likes SO FAR


        You know diriliş ertugrul movie ?? I know and love it very much ♡♡♡

        Learn Turkish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.