Translation:I have the duck.
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i am having the same issue.
simply why is it 'the' duck and not 'a' duck. i see no other quantifiers. yes, if i am looking at it as the answer to "who has the duck? ördek bende as 'the' makes sense, but i keep answering incorrect in english saying 'a duck (or whatever it's asking for)
sanırım cvbmiz verseydik: bir ördek bende, then it would be the indicator for "a" and all others are assumed as "the"? it's really hard to phrase this one out
Good morning SamiulHasan5
"Ördek bende." Translation: I have the duck.
"The duck is with me." Başka doğru İngilizce cevap.
Could you please explain me , What's the differences between "Benim ördeğim var" and "Ördek bende " ? As both meaning is I have the duck or a duck
Benim ördeğim var --> "I have a duck." The duck exists & it's yours.
Ördek bende --> "I have the duck." You have a duck in your possession & it may not be yours.
How do you say I have a duck when the duck does not belong to you? Benim ördeğim var really means my duck exists doesn't it? So it can't refer to someone elses duck can it? Because you can say I have a duck and mean I found this duck wandering about and it is here with me but I don't know which particular duck it is so I am not able to refer to it as the duck.
"Benim örneğim var" means "I have a duck". It can't refer to someone else's duck as the possessive ending -im indicates " my".
For the example you give, you can say "bende bir ördek var". Please don't forget that you'll never say these sentences on their own, so the context will always help you fortify what the sentence means.
"Benim ördeğim var" translates as "I have a duck". So, it wouldn't be grammatically incorrect but it's just not the correct translation in this instance.
Imagine someone is asking "Ördek kimde?-Who has the duck?" and the reply would be "Ördek bende.-I have the duck." Benim ördeğim var would not work. Does that help?