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- Topic: Turkish >
- "Ördek bende."
28 Comments
Why exactly is it the duck and not a duck? Is it because the duck is in the subject position? How would "I have a duck." normally be said? Could I say "Bir ördek bende."?
Please read over the previous question thread for this sentence, I think that'll clarify things for you.
i am having the same issue.
simply why is it 'the' duck and not 'a' duck. i see no other quantifiers.
yes, if i am looking at it as the answer to "who has the duck? ördek bende as 'the' makes sense, but i keep answering incorrect in english saying 'a duck (or whatever it's asking for)
sanırım cvbmiz verseydik: bir ördek bende, then it would be the indicator for "a" and all others are assumed as "the"? it's really hard to phrase this one out
What is the literal Translation of this sentence? Something like "The duck is at me" ?
Yep, exactly. A lot of languages lack a verb "to have" and use a similar construction like this one ("X is on/at/with me."). Other examples are Russian and Irish.
Actually RU uses both: у(with) меня(me) есть(have) утка(duck). Also it is possible to say "я(I) имею(own) утку(duck)
ah, so that explains why "the duck" is not receiving the accusative case, because "the duck" is actually the subject of the sentence! :) Yes?
569
How do you say I have a duck when the duck does not belong to you? Benim ördeğim var really means my duck exists doesn't it? So it can't refer to someone elses duck can it? Because you can say I have a duck and mean I found this duck wandering about and it is here with me but I don't know which particular duck it is so I am not able to refer to it as the duck.
"Benim örneğim var" means "I have a duck". It can't refer to someone else's duck as the possessive ending -im indicates " my".
For the example you give, you can say "bende bir ördek var". Please don't forget that you'll never say these sentences on their own, so the context will always help you fortify what the sentence means.
- 569
Thank you, this was really confusing, mainly because I couldn't tell where the definite article was coming from as opposed to an indefinite one. Context is everything!
Would it be grammatically incorrect to write benim ördeğim var here instead? If so, what is the rule for using one the 'var construction' instead of the 'da construction' if you see what I mean?
"Benim ördeğim var" translates as "I have a duck". So, it wouldn't be grammatically incorrect but it's just not the correct translation in this instance.
Imagine someone is asking "Ördek kimde?-Who has the duck?" and the reply would be "Ördek bende.-I have the duck." Benim ördeğim var would not work. Does that help?
So is the difference that I have the duck needs to be translated as ördek bende, but I have a duck should be benim ördeğim var?
Thanks! I can't tell you how long I spent doing the EN<--TK course puzzling over why I always got this wrong.
Does Benim ördeğim var also mean 'I have the duck'? I know that 'I have the duck' is 'Ördek bende', but is there any other way to say 'I have the duck'?
"Ördek bende." Translation: I have the duck.
&
"The duck is with me." Başka doğru İngilizce cevap.
- 943
Okay I think I get this now. So this is not possession of the duck but just that I have the duck with/at/on me, carrying it, holding it, whatever...
Posession of it would be benim ördeğim var... Correct?
That's why this is in locative lesson. Slaps forehead :)
This is one of the times when you try to understand the explanation, but instead just nod your head and say "böyle"... :-)
Hey guys can anyone say why this translation wrong? ( The duck is mine) i think they both have same meaning Thanks in advance.
