"Ördek bende."

Translation:I have the duck.

March 23, 2015



Would it be grammatically incorrect to write benim ördeğim var here instead? If so, what is the rule for using one the 'var construction' instead of the 'da construction' if you see what I mean?

March 23, 2015


"Benim ördeğim var" translates as "I have a duck". So, it wouldn't be grammatically incorrect but it's just not the correct translation in this instance.

Imagine someone is asking "Ördek kimde?-Who has the duck?" and the reply would be "Ördek bende.-I have the duck." Benim ördeğim var would not work. Does that help?

March 24, 2015


So is the difference that I have the duck needs to be translated as ördek bende, but I have a duck should be benim ördeğim var?

March 24, 2015


I love when the question I was going to ask has already been answered :)

April 8, 2015


Yes. :)

March 24, 2015


Thanks! I can't tell you how long I spent doing the EN<--TK course puzzling over why I always got this wrong.

March 24, 2015


Does Benim ördeğim var also mean 'I have the duck'? I know that 'I have the duck' is 'Ördek bende', but is there any other way to say 'I have the duck'?

July 29, 2016


Why exactly is it the duck and not a duck? Is it because the duck is in the subject position? How would "I have a duck." normally be said? Could I say "Bir ördek bende."?

April 25, 2015


Please read over the previous question thread for this sentence, I think that'll clarify things for you.

April 27, 2015


What is the literal Translation of this sentence? Something like "The duck is at me" ?

August 15, 2015


Yep, exactly. A lot of languages lack a verb "to have" and use a similar construction like this one ("X is on/at/with me."). Other examples are Russian and Irish.

August 16, 2015


Actually RU uses both: у(with) меня(me) есть(have) утка(duck). Also it is possible to say "я(I) имею(own) утку(duck)

June 24, 2017


How do you say I have a duck when the duck does not belong to you? Benim ördeğim var really means my duck exists doesn't it? So it can't refer to someone elses duck can it? Because you can say I have a duck and mean I found this duck wandering about and it is here with me but I don't know which particular duck it is so I am not able to refer to it as the duck.

April 29, 2015


"Benim örneğim var" means "I have a duck". It can't refer to someone else's duck as the possessive ending -im indicates " my".

For the example you give, you can say "bende bir ördek var". Please don't forget that you'll never say these sentences on their own, so the context will always help you fortify what the sentence means.

April 29, 2015


Thank you, this was really confusing, mainly because I couldn't tell where the definite article was coming from as opposed to an indefinite one. Context is everything!

April 29, 2015


This is one of the times when you try to understand the explanation, but instead just nod your head and say "böyle"... :-)

May 13, 2015


Why does bende ördek not work?

February 5, 2017


Its not a correct usage in Turkish

October 27, 2017


"The duck is with me." Baska doğru ingilizce cevap.

October 7, 2018


Okay I think I get this now. So this is not possession of the duck but just that I have the duck with/at/on me, carrying it, holding it, whatever...

Posession of it would be benim ördeğim var... Correct?

That's why this is in locative lesson. Slaps forehead :)

November 5, 2018
Learn Turkish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.