No. This sentence could only refer to objects. if it were a person, it would be "o bizimle değil", and if we mean "at our place", it could be "o bizde değil".
> "there is no such thing as it with us" > "it is not with us" > "we dont have it"
I do need these steps, in my mind. Tough!
I heard the target of "var" is put before "var" directly. But this case, "yok"'s target "O" is put separately."var" and "yok" works another?
And, I'm sorry about my English is bad. I am not English speaker.
I put we do not have that. But why can't this also be 'we do not have him/her' ?
"O bizde yok." Translation: We do not have it. "O" - he/she/it/that. (Pronoun) non gendered.
Yok - Don't have. Not a reference to a person.
"O bizde değil ." - He/She is not with us.
Yok - does not exist & (değil) - negates previous word.
Difference between (yok) - does not exist & (değil) not her/him.
"O bizde değil ." - He/She is not with us. I have a reference that "değil" can be used to reinforce not negate what follows & I can post this later.