I appreciate your answer.... but no lingot :) though I still don't know what on earth one can do with the thousands of lingots piling up, but somehow don't want to give them away... maybe they turn out to be useful in some weird situation...
I don't know how to use them either. Maybe there's a way in which we can make a worthwhile use of our lingots.
So ‘Katabı o okur’ conveys exactly the same meaning as ‘O, katabı okur’?
EDIT: ‘Kitabı o okur’ and ‘O, kitabı okur.’
In Turkish changing the place of words can give different emphasis on the sentence.
For example: Kitabi o okur - means that he is the one reading the book O kitabi okur - means that what he reads is a book.
So if you ask - who reads the book? You reply with Kitabi o okur
If you ask - what does he read? You reply with O kitabi okur
Could the place of the verb also be changed? Could 'okur' be put anywhere else in that sentence than at the end?
well, if you write okur o kitabi, that would sound really weird.
The only situation where that would sound ok is if somebody told you that person won't be able to read that book and you say "okur o kitabi", emphasizing he would read that book.
Kitabi o okur means he is the one who would read the book
Kitabi okur o means that he would read the book as opposed to doing something else with the book
Ozgun bey, how do you say "he reads that book"? Do you have to say O su(shu) kitabi okur?
"He is the one reading the book" when I wrote this translation,Duo marked it incorrect....I get your point,as it works the same way in Urdu....but Duo doesn't seemingly got it
Precise and helpful altho counter intuitive to me so will take much practice. Thanks tho, a very clear explanation.
I think (not sure), the difference is about the emphasize,... It looks like in Turkish the more the word is near the verb, the more emphasize is on that word. (I'm not a native though)
Thank you very much for responding, I didn’t notice that. Çok teşekkür ederim!
It is the same in Greek. Loose syntax = more power to the speaker to convey the desired emphasis. It's strict syntax that's "yoda" :D
am I the only person around here who hears Turkish words ending in 'r' with a distinct '(r)sh' sound? "okur" in this example has more of a 'sh' than an actual 'r' sound.
I think that's because the r can get devoiced (particularly in word final position), and therefore you only hear the air coming out of the mouth, which to ears of people whose native language(s) don't have that phoneme, sounds like a 'sh' sound.
I believe you also hear it in Scandinavian languages (the dialects that use a trilled r) especially Icelandic. As well as something similar in French, but with a velar/uvular (back of the throat) r, that gets devoiced, and thus sounds a little like when you're coughing up something.
does that mean it would be admissible (correct?) to "cut off the air" before "devoicing" the 'r'?
I'm not sure what you're saying. If you cut off the air, you cannot pronounce any voiced nor devoiced sound, at least anything that requires air from your lungs. It means you would "turn off the voicing" before you "cut off the air". An analogy with sounds we have in English would be if you tried to pronounce a "z" or an "v" but devoiced halfway, you would get "zzzzssss" or "vvvvvffff" where you devoice halfway and thus to English-listening ears you hear an "s" and an "f".
yes i got the same impression too. In final position 'r' is pronounced in this way : a very aspirant, whistle-like phoneme. It is not that difficult, just try to pronounce an american 'r' and blow some air out and you'll make it. I don' t know why most textbooks do not talk about that but on the internet you will find tons of descriptions.
You need to mark the object in sentence. You do this by word order in Englsih. Whereas you do this with markers in Turkish. So you can be loose with word order. And the word coming before the verb is the emphasized one.
This also means that you cannot change the place of the object if it's in nominative case. e.g. O kitap okur.
You can't say ''Kitap o okur.'', that is right. But you can say ''Kitap okur o.''. It would be an inverted sentence, though. In an indefinite object containing sentence, keeping the said object and its related verb together is important. Because they form the phrase when they are together.
Nuance. He reads THE BOOK. I think an example would be the change in the pronunciation of 'the' to thee for emphasis. It's not thuh book, it's thee BOOK.
Is there a difference between "Kitab(i without the dot) o okur" and "O, kitab(i without the dot) okur" or are they just two different ways to say the same thing? Thanks.
I saw in a different exercise that the "o" can be used to say "he reads THAT book". How would that sentence go?
Both are fine in Turkish. What you wrote is the normal, standard order, but the above order stresses that it was him that read the book and not someone else.
There seems to be a rule that Turkish words cannot end in a [b] sound. In "kitabı", the [b] is not at the end, so it's fine. However, in the bare form of the word, without [ı], the [b] sound changes to [p], which is the voiceless version of [b], because it's now at the end of the word. The only reason I know that [kitab] is the actual form of the word is that this word is a loanword from Arabic, and has a [b] in that language.
It sounds like it is a passive sentence. Kitabı o okur = The book is read by him/her/it
That would be 'O kitabı o okur.' or 'O, o kitabı okur.'. The only difference between them is the emphasis. In the first one it is on the person and in the latter one it is on the book.
Nothing, it is correct as well. Just you emphasize that he is the one that reads the book. But only when 'o' is in that position.
You can't. 'O' is both third person singular pronoun without any distinctions and a demonstrative pronoun.
I wouldn't say it's wrong... he reads that book would be "o kitabi okur" where 'o' denotes 'that book'.... If you say "O, kitabi okur" where "O" denotes him or her, it would mean he/she reads the book
I know it's really complicated....
why not Kitabı okur? I put that and it was marked wrong, but I'm not sure why that would not be correct since my understanding is the pronoun is not required.
you are right... kitabi okur means he/she reads the book putting the "o" puts more emphasis on the fact that he/she is the one who reads the book.
So, you are right.
When I look for the infinitive of "to read", it tells me "Okumak". Meanwhile, other verbs end in "mek", like in "yemek" or in "içmek". Is this like in French where you have verbs in -er or -ir?
No, in Turkish it has to do with vowel harmony. with Okumak, the fact that there is a U before the infinitive ending means it will be an A , -mak. For the other verbs you mention, the vowel is E and I, both of which require an E to be in line with vowel harmony, this ending in -mek. I know that there's something about vowel harmony here at Duolingo, but here's an offsite explanation: https://turkishteatime.com/turkish-grammar-guide/vowel-harmony/
That would be ''Onun okuduğu kitap''. A different method is used to make relative clauses in Turkish.
Kitab(book)-ı(accusative case) o(3rd person singular) oku(read)-r(present tense) (finite verb).
O-nun(possessor marker)(genitive case) oku(read)-duğu(verbal adjective)(in the form of suffix)- Ø(3rd person person marker) kitap(book)