"Nunca hemos comido en su casa."
Translation:We have never eaten at his house.
OK, I'll buy that translation. But mine "we never have eaten at his house" seems pretty good (but wrong).
"we never have eaten at his house" is used mainly as a negative answer to a question "Did you eat at his house the night he was killed?" "We never have eaten at his house!" "We have never eaten at his house" is a lot more common and more general in its usage.
both sound fine to me as a native speaker. I think the emphasis is changed slightly to the word in the middle. " We have never eaten at his house." is does sound a little more normal.
I have probably said never have, but I think have never is actually "proper" English. Sometimes I get the Spanish wrong when I know for a FACT I've said the sentence and was understood growing up, but it's probably that while it's accepted spoken Spanish, it's not PROPER Spanish. I'm betting that's the same with never have versus have never.
I put in "never have we eaten in your house" and it was wrong :( It doesn't seem wrong does it?
It sounds correct, if a bit awkward, I think all 3 examples are correct grammar. I used "never have" and of course was marked wrong.
Adverbs of frequency generally fall between the auxiliary verb 'have/has' and the past participle in the present perfect. In English of course...
If you want to emphasize "never" you would use intonation to express that, not change the position of the word. I have NEVER eaten at his house." It sounds off anywhere else.
Agreed. It should be pronoun>auxiliary>adverb>participle. although adverb>auxiliary>pronoun>participle, works in formal speech for emphasis eg. Never have I seen, in my entire life, such atrocities)
Never have we eaten at his house should be a perfectly fine answer. And they say this in English all the time.