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https://www.duolingo.com/tbvjshqk017

Someone please enlighten me?

I am in the course of going through reverse tree lessons, anglais a partir de francais.

So DL insisted that french imparfait and passe compose could be translated into English simple past tense.

However in this one lesson DL simply refuses to accept my answer. If I put "Parlais-tu ?" for the question "Did you speak?" it marks me wrong.

Anyone have an opinion on this? I am not sure if DL is even consistent with its translation priciples.

I clearly remember DL forced a principle where both imparfait and passe compose were translated to English simple past.

il y a 3 ans

5 commentaires


https://www.duolingo.com/tbvjshqk017

So if it's not for DL, both can be translated as English simple past, I just need a confirmation from francophones for a learning purpose.

il y a 3 ans

https://www.duolingo.com/JMarieS

Yes, « parlais-tu ? » is correct but very formal.

il y a 3 ans

https://www.duolingo.com/tbvjshqk017

Thanks, can i ask one more question? is imparfait tense considered formal in all or most cases?

Merci d'avance.

il y a 3 ans

https://www.duolingo.com/JMarieS

No, it is not the tense "imparfait" that is formal in that example. It is just because we would say « Est-ce que tu parlais? » rather than « Parlais-tu ? ».

il y a 3 ans

https://www.duolingo.com/tbvjshqk017

got it, thanks.

il y a 3 ans