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  5. "Tendré una casa vieja pero s…

"Tendré una casa vieja pero será bonita."

Translation:I will have an old house but it will be pretty.

September 2, 2013



Que será, será.


THAT's where I've heard this word! Thanks for materializing this rhythm in my head!


@wwang1 I enjoyed the movie and the song. Would you mind if I offered to correct your spelling?


Ha. I always believed this to be in French (actually it's the same in that language, just without an accent - que sera), but now I realize that actually it's pronounced more in Spanish way, without this hoarsly French "r" :)


A quick look only suggests that the phrase may come from Italian.


Close! The literal translation in Italian would be "che sarà, sarà". Whether an Italian would say that, I don't know.


What is important is that Doris Day sang it in the movie The Man Who Knew Too Much.


That is the first thing I thought of when I saw será!


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I will have an old but beautiful house is also correct and more grammatical I believe


I agree that that would be a natural translation but I suppose for the current purposes you miss out on the practice of conjugating 'Ser'.


Your version leaves out the verb, sera


it sounds more polished, yes. but don't forget "real" speakers don't always speak eloquently!


Yes I agree. No one would ever say "I will have ... but it will be ..." The será is unnecessary.


Does anyone ever say "I shall" anymore?


Still common enough in the UK, albeit among more well-heeled folk.


I hear it sometimes on British shows/movies


Shall I pick up the kids before dinner? Shall I pick up some pizza? ... I use it.


What about its opposite: shan't? Or is that shant?


Yes, it's still used in the US but it "I shall" has a more formal sound than "I will".


Great question! In English we have "will", "shall" and "going to" (like the Spanish "voy a").

I believe that "shall" implies a future act that is compelled or otherwise outside of one's control. "Will" implies a future act of choice. So legal documents use "shall" for acts that are required by law.

There was an old English grammatical joke that went: 'A foreigner falls off an English ship and in desperation shouts out "I will drown! No-one shall save me!". So everyone did as he stated -- and ignored him.'

Cruel, pedantic, but it helped me remember! I'm not sure how "shall" is expressed in Spanish legal documents.


I sometimes use it without thinking, but I am not sure why!


Why can't I have 'I am going to have...' - they are interchangeable in English and I thought that they were in Spanish too?


Duo mixes them up in almost every other example, so I don't see why they would count that as wrong.

I like to keep them separate, and not use them interchangeably.

I think the future tense (which isn't used all that much in Spanish) has much more force behind it - I WILL go to the store tomorrow. It seems to be more emphatic.

The ir + a/going to construction is less strong, in my opinion. We're going to go to the store. It's not as "dramatic" as the future tense.

I will =/= I am going to


They're not always interchangeable in English. There's a very subtle difference between the two. 'Going to' implies either a decision made at the time of speaking or plans that have already been made. 'Will' is more general. Compare a woman telling her husband during an argument: 'I'm leaving' or 'I'm going to leave' with 'I will leave'.


This may be stressing use of Future Perfect. It is neat how one word, Tendré, takes the place of several words.


bonita can also mean lovely, so my answer is not wrong


That's what I put down too.


Yes, that's what I put, so my answer isn't wrong, either. Perhaps DL doesn't know the word.


I will have an old but pretty house was my answer, also marked wrong.


I put that; it should be correct.


I will have a old house but it will be beautiful. This was my answer and it was marked wrong?! So I forgot to put an "n" after the a - are we being marked for small glitches in English grammar?


Sometimes it gives me a pass on typos and other times it doesn't. It's frustrating. Especially when my computer autocorrects yo to you and I get marked wrong.


Well, it was more of a typing error, wasn't it? I mean, you wouldn't make that mistake if you were speaking. It has let me off with what it calls 'typos' in the Spanish, so I don't see why you should have been penalised for a similar error in English. Ours not to reason why, dadexter.


No me parece natural esta frase en español. Creo que sería mejor escribirla de las siguientes dos formas: «Tendré una casa vieja, pero es bonita» o «Tengo una casa vieja, pero será bonita».

Además de esto, tengo que decir que la oración en sí es muy graciosa (y verdadera).


"I will have an old but pretty house" was incorrect, apparently


You are missing the sera - it will be pretty.


I put "I will have an old house but it will be pretty." Duolingo counted it wrong and said it should have been "I will have 1 old house but it will be pretty." Then I get to this discussion page and it says the correct translation is "I will have an old house but it will be beautiful." Why in one case was una interpreted as 1 and another time as "an"??


This sentence is disastrous.


Can tener sometimes be translated to get?


@forgetaboutit.78 Based on a youtu.be video I saw I would say yes. The name of the channel is Learn How to Speak Spanish Online Fast. The video is something like "Darn Little Word Get". He also has a helpful video on Para vs. Por.


Whoa! Isn't it "tendere" (accent on final e)? That's what my verb book shows. Tendere, tenderas, tendera. ??


Those are the future conjugations for tender.


lovely describes an old house as closely as "cute" or "beautiful": bonita applied to a woman is pretty or lovely,why not a house. Typical Yankee translation


I am going to have an old house yet it will be beautiful? Podemos usar yet as in however or but..


Okay I am wondering do the future verbs have a connection with past-perfect words? Thanks.


why not "but i will be pretty"?


"Será" apparently isn't the first person (I) form of the future tense of ser. I think after looking it up that "seré" would be how you say "I will be".


Where is the "IT" part in this sentence.? It is very confusing. Can somebody explain please?


It's implied by "será", which can mean any of he/she/it/you will be. In this sentence, since it doesn't match up with the [similarly implied] subject, I, of the first sentence, it makes sense that it refers to the house that was mentioned.


We started living in an old house. My ma gave birth and we were checking it out....


Can anyone explain why the first person future of "tener" is "tendré," and not "teneré?'


This site pisses me off when you get the sentence completely right but it marks you wrong for a slight spelling error in English!!!!!!!!


I put "I will have a house that is old but beautiful" but it's wants a wordy version with excessive "will be" s


Whats wrong with, "i will have an old but beautiful house" The it is not required for context


Why are the adjectives split around the subject? "Old" is before "una casa", although "but it will be beautiful" is after? I hope I'm not the only one when I say Spanish can be hugely mental gymnastics in the structure (coming from English).


I think it should be 'Tendré una casa vieja pero la será bonita'


I have it exactly the way you say


It should say "I have an old house but it will be beautiful."


I used "pretty" rather than "beautiful" but the received translation was an American abomination.


follow me on instagram : @st0na.marc0


follow me on instagram : @st0na.marc0


follow me on instagram : @st0na.marc0


follow me on instagram : @st0na.marc0

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