"Can I make them lunch?"
Translation:¿Les puedo hacer el almuerzo?
¡¡ S Á L V E S E ... Q U I E N ... P U E D A !! . ¡¡ C A N Í B A L E S !!
In this sentence, those who may have lunch prepared for them are indirect objects (for whom the direct object of lunch may be prepared) and it is therefore required in Spanish for the indirect object pronoun (the plural les in this case) to be placed before the verbs.
You can also put the "les" as an enclitic suffix after the verb: "¿Puedo prepararles almuerzo?"
Yes, I guess that is permitted when there are two verbs, as in this case (puedo preparar). Then you can add the indirect object pronoun to the verb which is in the infinitive (prepararles).
i think she is saying, or asking, that "el" ( or 'la') is always used before a noun like almuerzo ( i.e. el almuerzo, el coche, etc)
In any case, I am asking that - i.e. doesn't "el" have to be used if almuerzo is used as a noun ( and not a verb , as in "I lunch at noon")?
I think AnaElena is saying always use "el almuerzo" when talking about lunch as a noun (first, that's schoolbook Spanish as I remember it & second, avoids the possible ambiguity you mentioned)
In my experience in Mexico people usually say 'comida' and sometimes also 'lunch'. I think the first is too colloquial/generic for DL and the second is obviously a borrowed word from English. I don't think I've ever heard a Mexican use 'almuerzo' but they understand it.