"Sandviçler bende."

Translation:I have the sandwiches.

March 25, 2015

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Why "I have sandwiches" is wrong?


I think the problem is that it is sometimes quite hard to translate something that does not exist in the same way in another language (locative case).

In "I have (the) sandwiches.", "I" is the subject and the sandwiches are the (accusative) object of the sentence.

In "Sandviçler bende." the sandwiches are the subject, and "I" is the (locative) object.

So I think that the most literal translation would be something like "The sandwiches are with/on/at/in me". (Note that you need the "The" here, because omitting it would make you the place where sandwiches usually are found. Kind of the natural sandwich habitat.)

That is, because if a word is the subject of a sentence, it usually is definitive too, using the article "the" in English.

So I think this is the reason why the sentence has to be translated with "the sandwiches" and not just "sandwiches".


I agree with you.. I also think that "I have sandwiches" is wrong in this case because the phrase "sandviçler bende" can be used mainly as an answer to "sandviçler nerede?" and not "sandviçlerin var mı?".. thus the answer can not be "i have sandwiches" but "I have the sandwiches".. that's at least my viewpoint.. can be wrong, obviously ;)


like q: "where are the sandwiches?" .. a: "I have the sandwiches".. when "I have sandwiches" can be an affirmation and an answer to for example "what do you have?" .. and I suppose something similar happens with the Turkish phrase


I think "the" is not in the sentence for this reason. Subjects have a "the" with them but it's not written with the "i" as in objects. (e.g. if sandviçler was object it would have been written as sandviçleri) Sandviçler is a subject here and is understood to be translated as "The sandwiches" and not just sandwiches.

'de' in 'bende' is used for location. so bende is the indicator that the senctence is an answer to 'Sandviçler nerede?'

I think the confusion is bcz the same English sentence is used in different cases, the is context is not given in Duolingo with questions. Just like in many previous lessons we could hardly know if "you" was for Siz or Sen bcz English offers a single word for both of them.


Sanviçler bende=Benim sanviçlerim yok?


I believe “sanviçler bende” means that the sandwiches are physically with me (whether or not they are mine) and “benim sanviçlerim yok” means that the sandwiches are mine (whether or not they are physically with me)


Agreed, except that instead of "yok" it should be "var."


I think it’s because “ben” is followed by “-de” which indicates the need to use “the”.
This lesson is not about telling what you’re/someone’s possessing, rather it’s about where something is (i.e. the sandwiches).


Why not "I have the sandwiches with me"?


Should be accepted, report it. (Actually a better translation semantically than "I have the sandwiches" if there's no other context around IMHO.)


I wrote "I have sandwiches" but it marked it wrong. So I understand there is a difference between the two sentences in english but then, how would you say I have sandwiches? in Turkish


I have sandwiches = Benim sandviçlerim var.
-> lit. "my sandwiches exist" or "there are my sandwiches"


My answer to this was "The sandwiches are mine" and it was marked wrong which is fine. The correct answer given was " The sandwiches are on me". In the "discussion" the correct answer was given is "I have the sandwiches". This is very confusing. As an English teacher these sentences have entirely different meaning.


doesn't "bende" mean "me too"?


ben de = me too
bende = at/in/on me (locative case)


If you didn't want to say 'the,' would it just be 'sandviç bende' - 'I have sandwiches'?


No, that would definitely imply that you have one particular sandwich with you. "I have the sandwich!" The -DE construction for possession is usually describing something quite definite or understood.


Thanks! After completing this lesson, I have another guess: "sandviçlerim var" ?


isnt "ben de" means me too? so the space is the different between both.. like bende and ben de?, am i correct?


why not sandviçleri ( akkusative)??


You cannot use the accusative here. Even though we're trying to say "have," this is actually an is/are-copula sentence. Literally it is something like "the sandwiches are at me." When there is no verb, there is no direct object, and no possibility for the accusative case to show up.


General question for this exercise... In my brain it seems to make more sense to associate "bende/sende/onda/etc" with "is/are with me/you/him/etc" rather than "I/you/him/etc have the (...)" I hope I could explain it clearly. I'm basically wondering what the best translation is. In this particular case for example I wrote "the sandwiches are with me" rather than "I have the sandwiches". It was accepted but I would like to know which is a more accurate translation. Thank you!


"Benim sandviçlerim var" and "sandviçlar bende" are they have the same meaning?


Benim sandviçlerim var. = I have sandwiches. [I own sandwiches, nothing about their current location.]

Sandviçler bende. = I have the sandwiches. [They are in my possession, nothing about their ownership.]


If we MUST use THE sandwiches in translation, why not say "sandviçları bende"?


Why isn't it 'Benim sanveçlerim var'?


how is the explanation of the word "bende" which means I have, and what is the difference with "bende" which means me too. I hope you guys can help me.


how is the explanation of the word "bende" which means I have, and what is the difference with "bende" which means me too. I hope you guys can help me.


"The sandwichs are mine" should be correct


No. "The sandwiches are mine" would be "Sandviçler benim/benimki."

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