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  5. "Sandviçler bende."

"Sandviçler bende."

Translation:I have the sandwiches.

March 25, 2015



Why "I have sandwiches" is wrong?


I think the problem is that it is sometimes quite hard to translate something that does not exist in the same way in another language (locative case).

In "I have (the) sandwiches.", "I" is the subject and the sandwiches are the (accusative) object of the sentence.

In "Sandviçler bende." the sandwiches are the subject, and "I" is the (locative) object.

So I think that the most literal translation would be something like "The sandwiches are with/on/at/in me". (Note that you need the "The" here, because omitting it would make you the place where sandwiches usually are found. Kind of the natural sandwich habitat.)

That is, because if a word is the subject of a sentence, it usually is definitive too, using the article "the" in English.

So I think this is the reason why the sentence has to be translated with "the sandwiches" and not just "sandwiches".


Sanviçler bende=Benim sanviçlerim yok?


I believe “sanviçler bende” means that the sandwiches are physically with me (whether or not they are mine) and “benim sanviçlerim yok” means that the sandwiches are mine (whether or not they are physically with me)


Agreed, except that instead of "yok" it should be "var."


I agree with you.. I also think that "I have sandwiches" is wrong in this case because the phrase "sandviçler bende" can be used mainly as an answer to "sandviçler nerede?" and not "sandviçlerin var mı?".. thus the answer can not be "i have sandwiches" but "I have the sandwiches".. that's at least my viewpoint.. can be wrong, obviously ;)


like q: "where are the sandwiches?" .. a: "I have the sandwiches".. when "I have sandwiches" can be an affirmation and an answer to for example "what do you have?" .. and I suppose something similar happens with the Turkish phrase


I think it’s because “ben” is followed by “-de” which indicates the need to use “the”.
This lesson is not about telling what you’re/someone’s possessing, rather it’s about where something is (i.e. the sandwiches).


Why not "I have the sandwiches with me"?


Should be accepted, report it. (Actually a better translation semantically than "I have the sandwiches" if there's no other context around IMHO.)


If you didn't want to say 'the,' would it just be 'sandviç bende' - 'I have sandwiches'?


No, that would definitely imply that you have one particular sandwich with you. "I have the sandwich!" The -DE construction for possession is usually describing something quite definite or understood.


Thanks! After completing this lesson, I have another guess: "sandviçlerim var" ?


I wrote : sandwichler bende. Ama o dedi: yanlish.niyeeee? There is not turkish "ch" in my key board. I have to write ch


There are browser add ons to let you add characters that you cant find on your keyboard Although both android and apple devices do have multiple languge imputs available in the settings no add ons necessary


Also you can add it from system in both pc and mobile windows system.


This form is similar to the Hebrew possessive "יש לי הסנדוויצים" which literally translates to "The sandwiches exist to me".


It's a very common pattern around the world. Older European languages followed that pattern too. Old English, for example, could use either the verb "have" (habben) or dative + to be. "Woe is me" is a survival of that pattern (Woe is [to] me = I have woe")


isnt "ben de" means me too? so the space is the different between both.. like bende and ben de?, am i correct?


My answer to this was "The sandwiches are mine" and it was marked wrong which is fine. The correct answer given was " The sandwiches are on me". In the "discussion" the correct answer was given is "I have the sandwiches". This is very confusing. As an English teacher these sentences have entirely different meaning.




"The sandwiches are mine." Sandviçler benim.

Sandviçlerimi elbette seninle paylaşırım. Of course I will share my sandwiches with you.

Thank you.


"Sandviçler bende." Translation: I have the sandwiches.


"The sandwiches are with me." Başka doğru İngilizce cevap.


why not sandviçleri ( akkusative)??




"Sandviçleri." Their sandwiches. "Sandviçleri bende." Their sandwiches are with me.


"Sandviçler bende." I have the sandwiches.

Can you see the difference between the two sentences zeid?

Thank you.


sorry ... yes it is clear right now it is a case of locative not accusative


General question for this exercise... In my brain it seems to make more sense to associate "bende/sende/onda/etc" with "is/are with me/you/him/etc" rather than "I/you/him/etc have the (...)" I hope I could explain it clearly. I'm basically wondering what the best translation is. In this particular case for example I wrote "the sandwiches are with me" rather than "I have the sandwiches". It was accepted but I would like to know which is a more accurate translation. Thank you!


I wrote "I have sandwiches" but it marked it wrong. So I understand there is a difference between the two sentences in english but then, how would you say I have sandwiches? in Turkish




I have sandwiches. Bende sandviçler var.


Sandviçler bende var. I have sandwiches.

Fancy a picnic?


"Benim sandviçlerim var" and "sandviçlar bende" are they have the same meaning?


If we MUST use THE sandwiches in translation, why not say "sandviçları bende"?

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