"Biz seninkini içeriz."
Translation:We drink yours.
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This strikes me as a strange sentence, though grammatically perfectly fine of course. It sounds weirder to me in English than in Turkish, but the implication of this sentence is that the subject drinks the object's drink as a way of habit. Semantically that does not make a lot sense to me... ;-)
Imagine...you go to a bar with your friends every week. One friend never finishes her drink. You tell her. She says she drinks too much. You can reply "we drink ours and we drink yours."
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Well, sorry Alex, I don't agree with Enomaes here. Sometimes the examples are quite obscure, which in terms of learning a language I find unhelpful. I'd consider dropping or changing this one. My students often can't get a point when they translate and cannot fathom the situation that makes the sentence useful.
Think of it in reverse. I can produce numerous weird, yet entirely valid sentences. Yet, they'll simply confuse rather than assist my learners.
Something to consider anyway.
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Is it right to say "senini içeriz" ? I think that it works like this : "Senini içeriz" = we drink yours --- "seninkini içeriz" = we drink (the one which is) yours Is that correct ?
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That doesn't make sense either in Turkish. I'd never tell my friend I'll drink yours, because in slang "yours" is something different (I'm sure you understand)
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Because it is the direct object in this sentence. Senin (yours) + ki (making senin a noun) + n (connecting ki and (y)i - the rule behind this is a bit technical and is related to possessive forms, but it is the reason why in this case it is seninkini rather than seninkiyi) + (y)i (the suffix indicating it is the direct object).
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My understanding is that if a word already has a suffix attached to it (and that suffix ends in a vowel), the buffer letter for the accusative is -n instead of -y.
Maybe change this example to "...içdik" so it would be "we drank yours"? I think it is a more common phrase and doesnt sound as awkward.
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Not necessarily, Er/İr is a common suffix and there would be some situations imaginable where this example would go, even though it can be a bit complicated to do a non-contextual direct translation to English. Note also that the 'd' in the -Dİ suffix mutates into a 't' following 'ç', 'f', 'h', 'k', 'p', 's', 'ş', 't'. A good mnemonic aid for remembering these consonants is the following short sentence: Fe PaŞa ÇoK HaSTa (general F is very sick.... ;-) ). This also goes for a number of other suffixes that end with a 'd', like Dİr (güzeldir, hoştur).
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"Seninkini" Is the last "-i" because of accusative?
"seninkini" is in the accusative case. "seninki" is in the nominative.
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As its a sentence of future tense, your statement in correct English would be.... we will drink ours and then we'll drink yours". So would it be "biz seninkini içereceğiz."
here ıs why... I drink tea, You drink tea, We drink tea "yours" is not a specific type of drink!
we will drink yours, we are drinking yours , we drank yours
yours is in the personal tense
It would only be correct if it was an answer to a question about a particular drink and not the example you used. "do you drink theirs or do you drink ours?".... "we drink yours!" Yours therefore becomes a specific type of drink.
In English the only sentence of the same 3 word structure would be in a past tense answer "we/I/they drank yours!" So Ennomaes is right.
Sorry for being pedantic but If she says "I drink to much" (she drinks too much) that means she is a drunkard or has a drinking problem. So as its a specific reason of a present past tense... she would say "I have drank too much!" therefore she is saying... I have had too much to drink! So ennomaes ıs right again!
Back to the ball of confusion that is Turkish English / Englısh Turkish.