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  5. "Bizim eve varırsa haber ver."

"Bizim eve varırsa haber ver."

Translation:If he arrives at our home, let us know.

March 26, 2015



Why is it not evimize?


as i know when using "Possessive adjective" not as subject of a sentence the following noun should not take the "possessive suffixes" (at least it is better not to take);

benim evim burada. (benim evim==subject) (My house is here)

benim evi gormelisin. (benim ev==direct object) (You need to see my house)

but also when using as subject in colloquial language you may omit the suffix ;

bizim yazlık şahane! (our cottage is great!)


Yes, it seems to be a colloquial expression to me also. Is it in fact colloquial? Some moderator, please verify.


Hm, I thought your second sentence would have to be "Benim evimi görmelisin".


In colloquial language mostly it's omitted



Though I suppose the course should teach formal language, not colloquial.


help, mods! pretty please.. :)


At least in earlier skills, the moderators made a point that "standard" usage--i.e., not colloquial--would be required. So what changed?


Mizinamo, I think that too, but English is not my mother language. I understood the sentence in a different way. I don't know how to explain. I think if you make 2 sentences of the Turkish one you would get: "Bizim haber ver. = Let us know" and as subordinary clause "eve varirsa" = If he arrives at the house (our > only implied because of "let US know") Therefore we could think that "bizim eve means our house", but that would be bizim evimiz in another sentence without subordinary clause. The Turkish people usually do not double the things: Onlar yer ya da Yerler, but not Onlar yerler. I think that in this sentence the same happened with house.


Let us know would be Bize haber ver in Turkish.


Not always! BECAUSE they also use "benim ülkem", "benim kardeşim"


If the course contributors are going to introduce colloquial usage that doesn't match anything taught in the course so far, they really should explain it in the Tips section, otherwise it just confuses, frustrates and demotivates a lot of students who have no way of knowing why the grammar they've been consistently drilled on for so long no longer applies.


I asked my Turkish friend and he said that he would say 'Evimize' or 'Bizim eve' but he would not say 'Bizim evimize'. Unfortunately, he didn't know a reason beyond it sounding strange to him.


It sounds weird because it puts too much stress on the fact that the home belongs to us. 'Bizim' alone is sufficent to indicate whose home is it, so if you add an optional '-imiz' it sounds a little bit pretentious (not too much). Though there are some situations where it sounds normal.


yeah, had the same question. bizim confused me here without a suffix behind ev.


This is a year old and I think still needs an answer. It does seem like it should be evimize.


I'm glad it's all explained in tips and notes section ;)


This sentence makes me feel as if I skipped a whole skill without knowing it.


Moderators? Lütfen, sorusu cevap ediniz.


what's the difference beyan varırsa varsa, and following this pattern would there be a varıyorsa too


I am learning too, but I think the difference is not in the translation into English but in the meaning. If varsa is used, there is the wish that it may be, but it is not too sure. If varirsa is used, then is is more possible that the action really will happen.


Does anyone know the difference between "varsa" and "varırsa"? This is some hardcore stuff! Cheers!


The explanation I found in another discussion was:

"varsa[..]" = if [..] is present

"varırsa[..]" = if [..] arrives


You're mixing up two different concepts: VARSA can mean both 1. "if there were [money]" (para varsa) and 2. "if she were to arrive" (o varsa)

Thundermaggie wanted to know the difference between VARSA and VARIRSA as conditional forms of the verb VARMAK (to arrive).


When will we get moderators again? We need their input, especially in these units where there are so many incongruencies.


Am I the only one who hears bizim YA eve...


Where did "US" come from? In the part of sentence "let US know (haber ver)".


It's implied from the "Bizim". If it meant to tell someone else if he arrives, that person would have been explicitly mentioned.


Shouldn't it be "Bizim evimize …."


Is “bizim evimize ...” wrong ? Thanks


"bizim evimize.." is correct. Depending on who you ask, people say it may sound strange to a native because of the duplication of "our". For short, people in everyday communication say "Bizim eve..." a lot, or "Evimize..." (without the bizim). But it is correct grammar.


Thank you for clarıfying this. Take some lingots.


Can someone break down varırsa??


Varmak = to arrive. It is one of the 13 irregular verbs in aorist, so 'he arrives' is varır, not varar. Add -sa = varırsa = if he arrives. Thank you for your question; it made me work it out!


wow amazing, i knew nothing about these irregulars.. thank you for a very helpful answer.


You're welcome! There is a list of the irregular verbs in the tips on the Aorist tense.


Here's what I have understood from Duolingo lessons. Var- is the root (varmak - to arrive), -ır- is the tense sign for aorist ("varmak" is an irregular verb), -sa means "if". An aorist tense personal ending should be after -sa, its absence means that the verb is in the 3rd person singular. So, "varırsa" = if he arrives.


What is wrong with "tell us if he arrives at our house"?


The "tell us" part is "wrong". It is the same meaning, but the literal translation would be "bize söyle(yin)" or "bize anlat(ın)".

But this is only "wrong" for learning the different meaning of the words - technically, your sentence is a correct translation.

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