"Benim pantolonum"

Translation:My pants

3 years ago

12 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/A1fie
A1fie
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Unlike English, pants, eye glasses and similar items with two pieces have singular names in Turkish.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SofiSedat

Pants or trousers?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/deniko
deniko
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I had the same question. Pantolon (Turkish) = pants (AmE) = trousers (BrE). K├╝lot (Turkish) = underpants (AmE) = pants (BrE).

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AysCream
AysCream
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In this case they mean trousers indeed, but used the American English word rather than the British English word. Very confusing. Either way, it is talking about what you wear to cover your legs ;p

2 weeks ago

https://www.duolingo.com/srabonhasan

So .. How to say " My pant?"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sainio
sainio
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The word "pants" is never singular in English. (One pair of pants -- one garment -- is still called "pants.") In Turkish, it's different: one pair of pants is "pantolon," and many pairs of pants are "pantolonlar."

So here, "benim pantolonum" is "my pants," and I'm talking about one pair of pants.

If I were talking about multiple pairs of pants (all the pants in my closet, maybe), I'd say "benim pantolonlar─▒m."

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/YASSmina454904

So what about " pantalonum bende "? Is that makes any sense?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MrHilmiNevzat

"My trousers." Accepted as another correct answer. I hate American English words period. As a Turkish Cypriot londoner fluent in English I hate American English words & Mainland Turkish visitors to my workplace love my fluent London English. They also know/recognise immediately my Turkish Cypriot dialect which is different to their spoken Turkish.

3 weeks ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AysCream
AysCream
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Strange that most things are written in British English yet this word isn't. Pants = underwear in British English Pants = trousers in American English

To me very confusing, wish both options would show.

2 weeks ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GregoryZak
GregoryZak
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Why to use indicators of possession three times for one thing, while in English, German, French, Polish, Russian one will be enough? Compare: "my pants" where only "my" shows possession (1st person singular), while in "benim pantolonum" you use 1) ben-, 2)-im, 3) -um? That's excessive and seems unnecessary, pantolonum would be enough. And how to tell apart "I" and "my"?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Aerologia
Aerologia
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It's how language works. Compare:

French: Je mange, nous mangeons

English: I eat, we eat

Why the redundancy. You already have the pronoun. Why do you need to repeat it in the verb if you're speaking French.

Compare:

Arabic: Lakinni la afhamu

Lit: But-me don't I-understand

English: But I don't understand

Why the repeated information. Why doesn't Arabic just use one 'I'.

It's a matter of preference, usage, and language.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ArdaS_H

Maybe its like "my own shoes" but I'm not sure

1 year ago
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