"Il part après qu'il a mangé."

Translation:He leaves after he has eaten.

6 years ago

149 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/jesuisunmonstre

Does this sentence make any sense?

6 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kmg42
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I got this wrong the first time too. The only way I see it can make sense is if it refers to a habitual action: "He leaves [every morning, for example] after he has eaten."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MrHazard
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As Duolingo has been giving a number of these sentences with similar grammatical structures, I'm guessing that this is correct French, but if we translate literally it doesn't work.

It's frustrating, because more sensible English translations ("He leaves after eating") sometimes don't work. Ah, well, it's all part o' larnin'!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Kevin968039

A father comes home after work and finds a very unsuitable boy sitting next to his daughter at dining room table and says, " He leaves after he eats." La fin

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SarahSalaz7

Yes, it is correct and precise English.

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/flaneurdubois

Why would "He leaves after he ate" be incorrect?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/willijanb

flaneurdubois, It is incorrect because the present tense should not be combined with the past as it is in these two clauses. It should be "He left after he ate."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dorielle

I put in "he left after he ate" and it was wrong.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

Because "il part" is present tense.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ChrisJudge1

I wrote "he leaves after he ate" and was marked wrong. Should this be reported?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

That wouldn't be accepted because one part is in simple present tense and one is in simple past, meanwhile "he leaves after he has eaten" has a part in simple present and another in present perfect. "He leaves after he has eaten" is a general statement.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CochiCarrie

Isn't that completely different from "He leaves after he has eaten"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

Yes it is. "He leaves after he has eaten" is exactly right. "He left after he ate" changes the verb tenses.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hasen6
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"He leaves after he has eaten" and "He leaves after he ate" are both wrong in English but the former is accepted. The only correct answers would be "He left after he ate" or "He left after he had eaten". The only way to use 'leave' would be "He will leave after he has eaten".

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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"Il partait après qu'il avait mangé" or "il partait après avoir mangé" would express a habit in the past.

"Il partira après qu'il aura mangé" or "... après avoir mangé" would express a habit in the future.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

@Hasen6

Every morning he eats breakfast. When he has finished his breakfast he leaves. He leaves (each morning) after he has eaten.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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@PatrickJaye

I was responding to Hasen6's comment indicating that "the only way to use 'leave' would be..." + a future tense.

Of course expressing a habit can be done in future, and also in past (my example), and also in simple present:

  • (tous les matins), il part après qu'il a mangé/après avoir mangé. - that is what the original sentence says and means.
2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JeffCusack

You're dead-on for the most part. While lots of people are pointing out a correct context for the translation, it's extremely unnatural grammar without that context (which is not provided).

DuoLingo asking us to translate into rarely used English isn't helpful. Esoteric translations are, in fact, one of the main critiques of DuoLingo that I often see when reading reviews.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

Thanks Sitesurf!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

@Sitesurf

Isn't that a past habit as in - "He used to leave after he had eaten"

How do we express his current habit of leaving each day after he has eaten?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

@Sitesurf

Yes indeed ;)

It is useful to get your confirmation of the meaning of the original sentence as so many contributers to this discussion thread seem confused.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

@ PatrickJaye In that case (habitual action) wouldn't it be passé imparfait rather than composé?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Craig-Humps
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@DarrelDent

My guess here is that the habitual action is "him leaving" and not the "eating". So, because he "has eaten" it is an action completed in the past so it's passé composé. Personally, I find the difference between passé compsé and the imperfait one of the most difficult things to get right in French, especially in circumstances like this.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FelicitySpeed
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'He leaves after he has eaten' is perfectly ok in English as a general statement. That is what he generally does - 'he leaves after he has eaten' - a present continuous

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/marionmehr

Sooooo true. These sentences of several lectures must be re-edited I work my b... off to totally golden every lecture but go nowhere under these translation

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ColleenODe

He is leaving after he has eaten. Makes sense and should be right. Doesn't il part normally translate to he leaves, he is leaving?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

@ColleenODe

You raise an interesting point and although it has already been discussed on this thread I thought it was worth adding a few points to my previous comments elsewhere.

To confirm my thoughts I have had a chat with @Sitesurf our foremost native speaking expert on Duo. So I'm not claiming full credit for the following reply - I am really just letting you know what she says.

Also elsewhere in the thread - @jesuisunmonstre and @DDCorkum have given the correct answer to your question.

You are right that "He is leaving after he has eaten" makes sense but it is not a correct translation of this particular sentence.

You are also right that "il part" can often translate as either "he leaves" or "he is leaving" but in this sentence the correct translation is "he leaves".

The given sentence "Il part après qu'il a mangé" refers to a habitual action. "He leaves (each day) after he has eaten".

Your suggestion "He is leaving after he has eaten" is in effect "He will leave after he has eaten".

French is much more precise in its use of tenses and so to achieve your suggested sentence we would need a future tense construction.

"He is leaving after he has eaten" = "il partira après qu'il aura mangé"

In effect - "He will leave after he has (in the future) eaten"

This requires "partir" in the future tense and "manger" in the future perfect (futur antérieur).

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/buffalump21
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Can we get your post shifted to the top of the thread? It's such a looooong one! I've only just seen it and already reported the translation as an error... which i now realise (thanks to you and Sitesurf) it is not. ;-) Perhaps if we all up vote it, that will do the trick?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/colleenodea

Thanks for explaining all this. These fine points make me doubt I could ever really speak French well.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

Keep at it and you will do fine. It takes some work but keep in mind that French is actually much more logical than English and doesn't break the rules as often as English does.

Yes it is hard work to learn a new set of rules but once you have them and practice them it all fits together very well.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

Also keep in mind that speaking with an accent and making a few mistakes is FINE and only really stuffy people will mind at all.

If you mean you might never get so fluent nobody could tell you weren't French, well, maybe. But you would never get that far anyhow without spending a great deal of time actually speaking French with French people - i.e., living in a French-speaking environment - and in that case, I think you'd pick up these fine points from your daily exposure to the language.

So no worries, right?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/StuartFras5

So I got most of the way through working out this when translating into English, but decided that "He leaves after he has eaten", describing an habitual action, would be in the imperfect tense. Why isn't it?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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An imperfect would be possible if the story were in the past:

Il partait après qu'il avait mangé = he left/used to leave/would leave after he had eaten.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/steverino2

"He is leaving" is not the same as "He will leave". However, the habitual action comment makes sense. "He is leaving" is a single action versus an habitual one ("He leaves").

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

@steverino2

Yes true, as stand alone sentences "He is leaving" and "He will leave" are not the same but if we add a future time marker then they will mean the same thing.

So for example what is the difference between "He is leaving in ten minutes" and "He will leave in ten minutes."

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/steverino2

Good point, but this sentence has no future time marker.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

@steverino2

What is the meaning of "He is leaving after he has eaten" if it is not referring to a point in the future?

If it is that he is leaving in the present wouldn't it be "He is leaving having eaten" or "He is leaving now that he has eaten".

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/steverino2

Question: "I see he is leaving. Has he eaten?" Answer: "He is leaving after he has eaten."

One could also form the answer using the variations you mentioned.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

Or maybe the question is "When is he leaving?" Answer "He is leaving after he has eaten" ;)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/OakDoc1
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Thank you for the clarification; I had the same problem.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Parsamana
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very interesting, thanks, I was just coming here to ask the same thing...

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/appolo1

Thanks a lot. You both have explained my question.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Kevin968039

Thanks for that info, it is much appreciated.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jawadizjawad
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How to differentiate parle and part?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ph516503
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The "parle" is pronounced with quite a noticable "luh" on the end - "il parluh". Il part just ends with an "ar" sound:

http://www.audiofrench.com/verbs/parler.htm

http://www.audiofrench.com/verbs/partir.htm

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/greatlanguages
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A better sentence would have been (with accents...): Il va partir apres qu'il a mange." meaning He will leave after he has eaten.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/angela1

'He left after he ate' was rejected and I can see why but 'he leaves after he ate' is not correct English. 'He leaves after he has eaten' must be the correct solution.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

"He leaves after he has eaten" is now given as the correct answer.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jesuisunmonstre

Please, correct me if I'm wrong, but I think in French there would be a tendency to use le futur antérieur.

Il va partir (ou: il partira) après qu'il aura mangé.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/vamagman

Yes, future tense of partir makes the most sense. But why not "partira" rather than "va partir"--He will leave rather than he is going to leave, which of course both mean the same thing. I said "he is leaving after he has eaten," which is a formulation that one would often hear in English (because people are imprecise with tenses) and seems the same as "he leaves" but it was gonged wrong.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/oskalingo
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'He leaves after having eaten'

is accepted.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jeff4419

It looks right.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/OLR92
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Why is there a "que" before "il" as in qu'il Why cant the sentence be "il part apres il a mange?" Also, why is mange not in the infinitive?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ph516503
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It's 'mangé' rather than 'manger' as this is the past tense - 'he has eaten'.

As I said above, I think this is an odd combination of past and present tenses, seems a bit strange to me.

As for 'que'... sorry I don't know. It's just how they say this kind of thing in French.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/curlyeric
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Why can't I use "il part après avoir mangé"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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Because it is a past infinitive that is not taught yet at this stage in the course.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LomoteyDai

This is a transliteration, I'm afraid. Otherwise the best equivalent in English would be: He leaves after eating (e.g. breakfast)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

Why is there a "que"?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dwendl
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The "que" here is a conjunction. It introduces the clause "he has eaten". Contrasting examples: "Il faut manger." Because "manger" isn't a clause, it doesn't require "que". "Il faut qu'il mange." Here, "il mange" is a clause, so it requires the conjunction "que".

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

Thank you.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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"après" by itself is a preposition, but prepositions cannot be used as conjunctions, this is why "que" is added to form the conjunction "après que", like "bien que", "pour que", "afin que", etc.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

Thank you.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dwendl
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In English, we often drop the "that" and let it be implied. "We know (that) he is there." In fact, dropping the "that" is encouraged in the name of brevity if the meaning remains unambiguous. Some authors will edit their texts ruthlessly striking out unnecessary "that"s.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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Whether a relative pronoun or a conjunction, the French "que" cannot be dropped.

  • nous savons qu'il est là = we know he is there (conjunction)
  • c'est l'homme que je connais = he is the man I know (relative pronoun)

"Je dis que oui/non" is almost interchangeable with "je dis oui/non" in the name of brevity as well, and both could also be properly written like "je dis : « oui/non »". It is actually the kind of things you say without thinking in the flow of some story telling.

But as soon as there is a full subordinate clause after the main verb, "que" is absolutely indispensable.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

I know that and have no problem with understanding that. The problem with this sentence is that I've never seen "after that" used in this way, when translated literally (hence the English translation given uses "after", not "after that").

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dwendl
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Perhaps Sitesurf can explain the "que" in "Je dis que oui". "Oui" is not a clause, but I sense that "que" here is a conjunction. Is a clause such as "je suis d'accord" implied?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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Actually in "je dis que oui", "oui" is used as a replacement for something much longer.

Il m'a demandé si j'avais fini mon travail et je lui ai dit que oui (oui = que j'avais fini mon travail).

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

Thank you! Now that makes sense! I never understood the "que" either; I just figured it was a quirk of the language.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/radfox35

Doesn't "he ate" also make sense?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/blutach
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No as it mixes the tenses. He leaves is present while he ate is past.

He is leaving (he leaves) after he has eaten is the only thing that makes sense in English.

Read the thread. This has been explained in greater detail earlier.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/M0x420

''après qu'il AIT mangé'' fait beaucoup plus de sens que 'a'...

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jesuisunmonstre

You need to use the indicative after après que. Using the subjunctive in this case is a common mistake made even by many Francophones.

I think in their heads they think that since "avant que" calls for the subjunctive that "après que" must as well. This is not the case.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/johnplotz

I wrote "He WILL leave after he has eaten" since in French the present indicative can also mean the nearish future -- same meaning as "il va a partier apres. . . etc." Marked wrong. I'd say "live and learn" -- but I just don't trust Duolingo translations.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DDCorkum

This requires future anterieur, which literally would translate to: He will leave after he will have eaten. Il partira après qu'il aura mangé.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Davewilson123

Why not, he left after he had eaten?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ktinparis

Il est parti après qu'il a mangé".....He left after he had eaten........I believe this is the correct way to say what you wanted to say. "Il part" means he is leaving, or he leaves. This does sound awkward to me as well.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DDCorkum

Since eating is even further in the past than leaving, you could even use plus-que-parfait as follows:

Il est parti après qu'il avait mangé.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/graurenseur

What's the purpose of using "que" in here?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/barbie21144

Sitesurf explains that earlier in this comment thread

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/curlyeric
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Since the present is often used in place of other tenses when the timeline is established I'm still baffled why the more natural "he left after .." is not accepted.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pryymal

How about "he is leaving after he has eaten"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/go55ie
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I too put he is leaving after he has eaten _ why is it wrong?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

Well, my guess is that the meaning of the sentence has shifted a bit.

Although "is leaving" is technically in the present tense, combined with the phrase "after he has eaten", it is clearly referring to a time in the near future. "You don't need to make up a bedroom for him. He is leaving after he has eaten."

In French, they would throw all of this into the future. As DDCorkum explains further up the page, it would then be, "Il partira après qu'il aura mangé"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sumemon

Should be accepted

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DennisPapr

I wrote "he is leaving after having eaten" which was marked wrong and the right answer was "he leaves after having eaten". In other lessons something like " he leaves" and "he is leaving" are treated as equally correct, what's the magic trick here?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jesuisunmonstre

The explanation is that, though it's true that "il part" can be translated as "he is leaving", the rest of the phrase (after having eaten) renders the present continuous ungrammatical in this context; you have to translate it with the present simple.

For example, even though you can say, "J'aime manger des oranges" (I love eating oranges), it would be grammatically incorrect to translate that as "I am loving eating oranges." Perhaps there's a more elegant explanation out there.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

I don't think "he is leaving after having eaten" is wrong. I think it's just a translation DL hasn't yet put in its database. Report it, that's what we're here for.

Edit: Also, "I am loving [whatever]" is acceptable English, although it's a turn of phrase I find a little overly cute.

Later Edit: See PatrickJaye's meticulous explanation for why "He is leaving..." does not convey the meaning of the French sentence.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ph516503
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I agree - this is just something to chalk up to DL not having that translation yet.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Pstbukkie

How is "il a mangé" "he eats". Thats what duolingo told me!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hasen6
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"He leaves after he has eaten" is accepted but "He leaves after he ate" is not. Very odd.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

It isn't, really. "He leaves (present) after he ate (past)" is just wrong in English. You can, however, combine the present tense and the present perfect - as "he has eaten". The present perfect tense implies an event in the very recent past, quite often right up to the present.

Here's an example - telling a story in the present tense:

John wakes up early, ready for his first day of school. He dresses carefully and goes downstairs, where his mother has prepared his favourite breakfast. His best friend is waiting to walk with him, and he leaves after he has eaten and kissed his mother goodbye.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/blutach
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I also think "he has eaten" is better in this context.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Gambelguy
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Well, unfortunately, when we were asked to translate this sentence into English, the correct answer was given as "He leaves after he eats." I had entered "He leaves after he has eaten." and it was marked wrong. Should be fixed.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

I guess it has been, because "He leaves after he has eaten" is now (24May16) the given correct translation at the top of this page. Thanks for reporting the error.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hope197

Why is there a "qu'" before "il"?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dwendl
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"Après que" is a conjunction meaning "after". Je mangerai après que je me lave les mains. "Après" alone is a preposition. "La fête était après l'examen."

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/frenchwol

Why is 'he leaves after he has eaten' incorrect?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

It shouldn't be, unless it got dinged because it wasn't capitalized. It's exactly the translation at the top of this page.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dcumberledge

I wrote "he is leaving after he has eaten", which makes perfect sense in English but was marked wrong.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DrewDdmek
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Why is a "qu" in this sentence?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dwendl
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"Que" is needed because what follows is a clause. "Après que" is the conjunction meaning "after". You'd say "…après qu'il dorme" and "…après le chien" because "il dorme" is a clause while "le chien" is not.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/barbie21144

Merci, Patrick Jaye

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neilcarr

I guess the "qu' " is part of "apres", I used "what he ate" and it's incorrect. Any thoughts?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dwendl
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Après que is a conjunction, joining two clauses. Il part is one clause; il a mangé is the other. Après by itself is a preposition, adding a word or phrase. Après l'éclair on entend le tonnerre (after lightning we hear thunder).

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/luftmunk

What is the difference between "He is leaving after he has eaten." (which I got wrong, and "He leaves after he has eaten." (which I supposedly should have written)?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/n6zs
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Native English speaker: it does not make sense to use Present continuous to describe an action regarding a completed past event. By saying, "he leaves ..." followed by a past action, it describes a habitual action. The sentence is really not tricky. Here are some different versions of something one might say (not what this sentence says, though).

  • il part après qu'il mange = he leaves after he eats
  • il part après qu'il a mangé = he leaves after he has eaten
  • il est parti après qu'il a mangé = he left after he ate
  • il partait après qu'il avait mangé = he would (used to) leave after he had eaten
1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/clrtnb
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Ha-ha, I did this as a listen-and-translate exercise but in a noisy environment I heard, "Il parle après qu'il a mangé." So I imagined this person to be an after-dinner speaker.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DanielSalt7

The French is Duolingo is not superb to be honest but it's free and will at least increase vocab

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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Duo is primarily for beginners; superb French is for very advanced learners.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

Do you know of any site that teaches superb French for free?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

You could take a look at Français Authentique (www.francaisauthentique.com). It's aimed at learners who have a good grasp of written and spoken French, but who still do not feel like they're "conversationally" fluent. It's mostly video-based (videos are housed on YouTube), with transcripts on the website. Those who want more can also purchase lesson packages. At the highest level, there's also an "academy," but it has limited membership and I believe is currently closed. Another option that I also use is only available as an iOS or Android app, not a website, is called MosaLingua. It's more similar to Duolingo in the way it's organized, but it teaches phrases and slang and is generally at a higher level than Duo. There is a free version of the app that's good to start with. Then, if you decide that you want more, you can upgrade to the paid version (still only like $4.99, I think) and if you want still more, there are specific packages that you can buy within the app. Finally, check with your local library about their resources. I am able to use Rosetta Stone by connecting through my local library's website. I just have to give my library card number, just like checking out an e-book. Bonne chance !

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

Thank you so much!

The last part isn't applicable for me because I'm in a really underdeveloped country, where there's next to no "proper" libraries (let alone libraries with websites that Rosetta Stone will allow).

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

Glad I could help!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Silvertaffy15

I was taught that 'apres que' must be followed by the subjunctive. Comments please/

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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There may be some confusion with "avant que".

  • avant qu'il ait mangé (subjunctive)
  • après qu'il a mangé (indicative)
1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

What is the difference in translation between the sentences using the subjunctive and indicative moods?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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In French, you usually do not have a choice.
The two phrases above are mutually exclusive, which means that if you use a subjunctive with "après que" and/or an indicative with "avant que", you will be incorrect.

This does not affect your translations to English, where the use of a subjunctive is rare and sometimes optional.
Other than the time span, there is absolutely no difference in English:

  • before you have eaten
  • after you have eaten
1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

Is there any logic as to why "après que" doesn't take the subjunctive (or is it just one of those things you have to memorize)? I would have (and probably have) used it as well because of the "que." Are there any other "____ que" phrases that don't take the subjunctive?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

As I see it, the subjunctive is mostly related with possibility and probability (as in, doubts, alternate ways things could've gone, etc.). Something like "après que" has nothing related to any possibility, it's purely indicative (e.g.: X does y after x does z). Keep in mind, this logic doesn't always hold up. Many are just arbitrarily set phrases which must be used with the subjunctive.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sitesurf
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That's right: there is a higher degree of certainty with "après que", at least in present and past tenses.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DarrelDent

Thanks Typo3000 and Sitesurf!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PupilTommo

Why is he leaves after he ate wrong?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Typo3000

You are using two separate tenses together. "leaves" just doesn't work with the past "ate". "has eaten" implies that he left right after eating. I don't really know how to explain. Please wait for Sitesurf's response.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/n6zs
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Passé composé may indeed be translated into either Present Perfect (he has eaten) or Simple Past (he ate). However, the presence of the leading clause forces us to use only the Present Perfect here. It has to do with the perspective of the person making the statement. For example,

  • Il est parti après qu'il a mangé = He left after he ate. This sentence refers to a one-time occurrence.
  • Il part après qu'il a mangé = He leaves after he has eaten. This sentences suggests a habitual action that 1) he eats, and after he has eaten, he leaves.
1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ashleycwg

Why apres que and not apres

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dwendl
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Après que is a conjunction, joining two clauses. Il part is one clause; il a mangé is the other. Après by itself is a preposition, adding a word or phrase. Après l'éclair on entend le tonnerre (after lightning we hear thunder).

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ibnsina786
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A koala eats shoots and leaves. Michael Corleone eats, shoots, and leaves.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Kevin968039

@ibnsina786, that is great! Haha. What a difference punctuation makes.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/maxshakal
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reported lmao

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Erytheros

There are a lot of comments here, so I don't know if this has been said before, but I entered an incorrect answer, and Duolingo gave me "He leaves after he eats." Wouldn't that be an incorrect translation?

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Qiset1
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would "ate" work in place of "has eaten"?

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/eva.juhasz10

I wrote: He leaves after he ate. But it was corrected: He leaves after he eats.-I do not understand it.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Aeneas_Stamos

He leaves after he has eaten is wrong English. The correct why to describe a habitual behavior is "He leaves after he eats."

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/deborah853655
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The English translation is not possible. It would be He left after he ate, or he leaves after eating...

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ph516503
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Mixing past and present tense like this just seems very wrong... I guess you could form a sentence in this way, but it requires some mental gymnastics to come up with a situation where this makes sense.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sumemon

Il part can mean he is leaving which makes perfect sense in English,He is leaving after he has eaten.Duo's sentence only makes sense in the form of an ultimatum/threat

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

@byrnejoe

The given French sentence and the English translation can (and probably does) refer to a regular habitual action.

Each day after he has eaten he leaves. He may have been doing this everyday for the last six months and the speaker expects it to continue everyday for the next six months. Therefore - "He leaves after he has eaten".

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sumemon

On what do you base this assertion?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PatrickJaye

Which assertion do you mean? That it can or that it probably does refer to a habitual action?

That it can - because it is blatantly obvious that it can simply as a literal translation.

That it probably does - because it fits with Duo's teaching on the use of present tense generally and is the most straightforward.

In my opinion if Duo intended a future action, rather than a habitual action, as the primary translation the compilers would either have used a future tense construction or used the present tense with an absolute future time marker rather than an ambiguous one.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sumemon

Just had an email from sitesurf that 'he is leaving after he has eaten ''is now accepted took some time

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sumemon

There is no indication whatsoever that this sentence refers to an habitual action unless you add them as you did in your post .I do not think duo intended a future action i think as it stands the sentence is a bald statement of a sequence the purpose of which ,if indeed there is a purpose.is to show that apres que is followed by the indicative

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

"The man in the overcoat walks into a restaurant. He sits down in a booth and orders a grilled cheese sandwich. A woman enters and sits across from him. They speak quietly but urgently. She jumps up and runs from the restaurant, crying. He remains, appearing unconcerned. He leaves after he has eaten."

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Kevin968039

@DianaM, I said something similar! But I like yours better :-)

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sumemon

Yes but duo's sentence is not part of a narrative rather a stand alone sentence.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DianaM

You said it only made sense in the form of an ultimatum/threat. That, too, would require context. I was just demonstrating another context in which the sentence works.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ph516503
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I don't see any way in which "he leaves after eating" could be construed as a threat or ultimatum.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sumemon

A situation in which an man is in someone's home having a meal when the owner returns and does not like the fact that another person has allowed the diner in. 'He leaves after he has eaten.' Is one of many situations + it works as a stand alone sentence not needing a whole lot of narrative/historic present to support it.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ph516503
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Hmm. Strange how different people's minds work. That scenario never occurred to me at all - I just assumed some kind of boring narrative describing what someone does in a standard time sequence, rather than some terse dialogue from a Western.

3 years ago
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