Here 'randevum' is translated as appointment, but in another sentence earlier, I put appointment and I was corrected and told to put 'date'. I could just as easily say ''I have a date today''. Could someone please explain? Thanks
"I've an appointment" came up as the correct answer for me. Although I translated wrong anyways, "i've" in this context is not natural at all. I think it is only used for past tense, and not in the sense of having something.
If you'll look at the response to a question I asked above, you'll see that she put "benim" in parentheses, so it can indeed be used. :D I can't, however, tell you if it would sound better with or without it.