"I have the duck."
"Ördek bende" and "Benim ördeğim var" are the same?
Is there any difference in meaning???
Benim ördeğim var = I have a duck.
Ördek bende → literally: The duck is on me → I have the duck.
No. Did you try to make it accusative? You can't, because it's not the object. "Vay/Yok" sentences don't have objects.
I wrote "Ördeği bende" because THE duck but it was not valid. Would it be acceptable?
Ördek is the subject, so it can't be in the accusative case. Your sentence however is possible with another meaning: I have his duck.
This is due to the fact that the accusative and 3rd person possessive look the same for words that end in a consonant.
Nope, that would be "I have a duck." :)
Read the above sentence. It is "I have the duck." :)
In the Turkish sentence "the duck" is the subject. The logic is kind of like saying "The duck is at/on us."
That being said, subject can never be in the accusative case. It is only for specific direct objects and some time expressions.
But you had said in other discussion about [Çay onlarda=Çayi onlarda var] that "Ördeği bende var" should be same as "Ördek bende"
Please explain why here not?
That just means "I have a duck." If you are talking about having something specific, use "X bende"