Suppose we have a dog which is not ours, but belongs to somebody else. I am confused as to why the word 'our' does not appear in the English translation. Any clues?
They are using "We have a dog." only with the meaning of "We own a dog." which last they are also accepting now. I know it is confusing, because it is possible for us to say "We have our dog.", but think of the other one in which we would not say "We own our dog." We are going to have to consider this as translating our idiom to theirs.
We have a dog (that is not ours) would be: "Bizde bir köpek var," without a possessive.
I'm a bit confused about the 'bir' in these sentences. I feel like if it literally means "our dog exists," as someone said in another comment section, why is there an indefinite article?
Well, let's say it literally means "our one dog exists". :D
I can't really explain why.
The formula is: X has <number> Y's → (Of-X) <number> (Y+possessive) exist(s).
Bizim bir köpeğimiz var.
Bizim üç kedimiz var.
and so on.
Teşekkürler :) Is the 'bir' necessary (when it means 'a'/'an' rather than 'one') or can it be left out like in other sentence structures? Or does it always mean 'one' in have-constructions, so it's necessery?
We have a dog literally translates to "Biz bir köpeğe sahibiz" but it is not a natural sentence that you hear from a native. Instead we say "Bizim bir köpeğimiz var", "2 evimiz var", "3 ağacımız var" etc. (PS. ev=house & ağaç=tree)
You need the "var" in any case otherwise "bizim bir köpeğimiz" means nothing it is an incomplete sentence. But you dont have to use "Bizim" since it is already implied in "köpeğimiz" (since it means our dog" so you can say either "Bizim bir köpeğimiz var" or "Bir köpeğimiz var" to express the same meaning.
If there were many dogs, would the phrase be: "Bizim (number) köpeklerimiz var"? I still get very confused when stringing multiple affixes together!
But hang on, you can't use a number AND plural at the same time. Numbers require singular.
Bizim köpeklerimiz var. - we have dogs
Bizim 5 köpeğimiz var. - we have 5 dogs.
Well that is good to know. It will take some getting used to, but we should just consider it an idiom.
The most literal (and acceptable) translation is being rejected. Consider:
POLİCEMAN: "Did you report your dog as stolen?"
US: "No sir. We have our dog."
There are numerous questions with this problem. While in some cases I might say, "I have a dog", not always.
If there's a Turkish distinction/alternative between the two cases, please clarify.
All arguments I've seen try to explain that this would be awkward English. I still assert this is literally, "We have our dog."
Why is it "köpeğ(i)miz"? Why is the (i) there when the same 'version' of "cat" does not have it (kedimiz)?
I understand that the 'g' mutated to 'ğ' because of the (i), I just don't get why the (i) is there in the first place.
Because we try as much as possible to get the consonant - vowel - consonant - vowel sequence.
If the word ends in a vowel, add -miz.
If the word ends in a consonant, add -imiz.
şimdi am, is, are fiil olmayan cümlelerde kullanılıyor bildiğim kadarıyla bu cümlede fiil yok ama am, is, are da yok neden ?
Why does kopek change to kopegimiz, does it only change to that when you are saying you have or do not have a dog, and hiw do you change it to we have dogs (plural) ?
is there anywhere i can understand what suffix goes behind the normative? like why in "Benim bir kuşum var" kuş has "um" at the end and why in this case it is köpeğimiz?