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"Mijn portie friet werd gestolen door die vogels!"

Translation:My portion of fries was being stolen by those birds!

3 years ago

11 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/4sily
4sily
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Yeah, familiar story - I was recently attacked by a gull while going to eat my piece haring at Scheveningen in the Hague.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dalyjchris

Yes, watch out for those opportunistic seagulls! They also like to drop little white bombs on your head too.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andrew361416

What is wrong with my answer "my portion of fries were stolen by those birds"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/wucnuc
wucnuc
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Gramatically, it's was not "were" because it's describing the singular "portion"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DoctorSnakebite
DoctorSnakebite
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Correct ."My fries were stolen...", would be ok too,without portion.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lancia71
Lancia71
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My answer was "My portion of fries has been stolen by those birds!" which I think is correct. 'To be stolen by' sounds like bad English. I never construct sentences using 'To be xxx by'.

What is your view?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MarqFortaleza
MarqFortaleza
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My view (assuming that you aren't concerned about by, but about the verb):

  • "has been stolen" suggests that you're talking about something that happened in the past
  • "was being stolen" means it was happening while something else happened.

Therefore, I think the second version is correct, because (to me) the original sentence suggests some context like: "Ik kon op dat moment helaas de telefoon niet opnemen..... Waarom!? Mijn portie friet werd gestolen door die vogels!"

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lancia71
Lancia71
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Thanks for looking into this :-). Let's put the sentence in an active form instead of passive: "Die vogels stalen mijn portie friet."

In English then: "Those birds stole my portion of fries" and not "Those birds were steeling my portion of fries." like you suggested Marq. The sentence imho is a fait acompli so past tense. Makes sense?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MentalPinball
MentalPinball
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First of all, I second to what Robert said above (and I'll go into that later). Now, on the one hand, your sentence is grammatically correct, but the original sentence in Dutch is in the simple past tense of the passive voice, which is constructed using (was/were) + (past participle of a verb), with the adding of the agent ('doer') being optional. The part of the sentence that says 'by xxxxx' is the adding of the agent. Now, in your example you used the passive voice in the present perfect tense, which is constructed by using (present perfect of to be) + (past participle of the main verb), resulting in (have/has been)+(past participle). In short, even if your sentence was grammatically correct because it's just another tense of the passive voice, it was considered incorrect because it wasn't the right tense according to the original sentence. Hope this helps! :-). If in doubt, ask away.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lancia71
Lancia71
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Thanks for the explanation Airam. I am not used to use past participle in English hence the faux pas.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MentalPinball
MentalPinball
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I see, no problem. If you still have doubts of my explanation wasn't clear enough, ask away!

1 year ago