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  5. "She has the cake."

"She has the cake."

Translation:Pasta onda.

March 30, 2015



Is it possible to use a "var" sentence?


No, since this a specific object being owned, you cannot use var. Var is only used when the object is not specific. There will be a grammar explanation of this soon.


I see that the question has basically been asked but I will rephrase it to help answer mine. How does 'pasta onda' mean 'She has the Cake', when the 'da' ending should denote 'in', 'at' or 'on'?

Is this just an irregular example?


It literally means "the cake is on her" or "in her possession". This is how we say "to have".


That is very clear thank you


just like asking in english" do you have a dollar on you?"


Why is pastayı not accepted?


Because it is not used with a transitive verb like "to eat".

She ate the cake - o pastayı yedi.

[deactivated user]

    why is it 'onda' and not 'oda'. I feel like there is some rule I'm forgetting but i can't recall at the moment..


    It is just an irregular form. It may stem from "oda" meaning "room," but I am not sure :) It is best to just memorize it.


    The "n" functions as a buffer letter here


    Ok, I got all of it now, but why do we use the locative in all these? Is it literally "The cake is in her"? :p


    If you want to say that something is inside, you have to use preposition of place "içinde". In that case it would be "onun içinde pasta var"


    Yes, yes, but I mean, why the use of the locative in this "x has the y" kind of sentence?


    Some languages don't have the verb "to have". If you are into the boring etymological stuff: there is a theory that says that nomadic/tribal cultures don't always linguistically develop a "to have" structure. As they never stay in one place for too long, they don't own lands or treasures. Whatever one person has is shared by everyone in that tribe, and so rather than "having something", the idea is "that thing simply exists" and is expressed as "The object exists in the pockets of this or that person" or in short "The object is on that person for now." Anyway, Turks were nomadic before finally settling up where they are now. After settling, they encountered new concepts such as owning lands and precious objects, so they borrowed words like "mülk, malik, mülkiyet, sahip" from Arabic, which didn't exist in Turkish.

    Don't ask for a source for this theory, I don't even remember where I read it or if it is true. Just read it as a faerie tale and take it as food for thought. ;p


    Keep on telling us 'boring' stuff whenever you want please. I love it :)


    I don't know if it's true or not, and it'sso interesting that I don't care much anyway. And it kinda answers my question in a weird way.


    "Y is at/on X" = "Y is attached to X" = "X has Y"

    It's reasonable, isn't it? ^^

    Learning a language is like learning a new way to look at the world. It's fun. ^^


    The locative doesn't necessarily mean "in." In this case it can be understood to mean "the cake is with her."


    From the very beginning of this course i've learned that CAKE means PASTA.... Why it says that it means KEK now????!!!!!!!!


    Shouldn't it be "Onun pastası var"?


    Bu cümlenin karşılığı "Senin kekin var" veya "Sende kek var"dır Türkçe'deki yaygın kullanımda. Duolingo yöneticileri, siz biraz "Dert bende derman sende" şarkısını dinlediniz de oradan öğrendiniz mi sanıyorsunuz meseleyi nedir? O şarkının çok etkisinde kalmış olabilirsiniz. Not: konuştuğu ve yazdığı dille para kazanıp mesleğini yürüten, Türkçe'de makaleler yazılar yazan, yüksek lisans yapan ve Türkiye'de doğma büyüme bir Türk vatandaşı olarak söylüyorum bunları

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