"He heard a person in his house."
Translation:Han hørte en person i sit hus.
Could one have used "hans," meaning that the house belonged to the person?
No. If u say ''Hans'' it means it belongs to someone else. A lot of danes makes this fault.
So, it could not mean that it belonged to the person the subject heard? In other words, he heard a person in that person's own house?
If u say: ''Han hørte hørte en lyd i hans hus'' = ''He heard a sound in his house'' Then its just someone else house, not his own, meaning he heard a sound, not in his own house, but in another persons house.
Right, I was interpreting it as the house of the person heard, not the person doing the hearing. I would have thought it referred to the person most recently referred to not the subject. In other words, I was thinking that "Han hørte en person i hans hus" would mean "Han hørte en person i personens hus."
Is 'hørede' incorrect here? Is a verb either -te or -ede in the past (but not both), or does the -ede just not work grammatically in this case?
Yes, most verbs in the past tense are either "-te" or "-(e)de" (with "-t" and "-(e)t" past participles respectively), however there are some verbs that conjugate the past tense differently depending on meaning, and some which could be both, but these are of a tiny minority. There are of course irregular verbs, but most of these will have to be remembered on a case-by-case basis.