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  5. "Pastanın tümü benim."

"Pastanın tümü benim."

Translation:The whole cake is mine.

April 4, 2015

50 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Hayat154

How did u paste this sticker?? İ mean there isn't any option of this so..


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Oso343933

What would be the translation to "The whole of YOUR cake is mine"? I understood it would be "Pastanın tümü benim". Is it?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Marie_goforit

Yes, it is, it's the same:

your cake = pasta_n
of your cake = pasta_n_ın

the cake = pasta
of the cake = pasta_n(buffer)_ın


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/GershTri

"Bütün" is a pronoun and "tüm" is a noun, right? Could I also say "bütün pastayı benim"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ektoraskan

Neither is a pronoun.

They can both be an adjective or a noun.

Bütün pasta = All of the cake

Tüm pasta = The whole cake


"Bütün pasta* benim" is correct.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/dieprinzessin

What would be 'I eat all of my cake.' ? Bütün pastanım yerim. ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ektoraskan

[ I ] (subject) - [eat] (verb) - [all of my cake] (object)

First translate the parts in brackets, then add the necessary changements according to the info given in parentheses, because that depends on where in the sentence the word appears.

all of my cake → bütün pastam

now, it's the object, so add the accusative at this point: bütün pastamı

Bütüm pastamı yerim.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Marie_goforit

Hi Ektoraskan, only to be sure:
Does it have to be 'BütüN pastamı yerim.' ? I guess you meant this, so only for being sure.

Another question:
Are 'bütün' and 'tüm' interchangeable so that it could be:
'Pastanın bütünü benim.'?
(in addition to 'bütün pasta benim')


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ektoraskan

Oops yes. That was a typo. It's bütün pastamı.

Pastanın bütünü benim is possible, where you treat bütün as a noun (la totalité du gâteau est à moi or something like that). Not a very common thing to say, but it's possible. Bütün/tüm pasta benim = all the cake is mine, where bütün and tüm are interchangeable.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Marie_goforit

Thanks a lot! :)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/dieprinzessin

Thanks. I guess I meant that, but I added the cases in the wrong order. I put accusative first and then the possessive ending... Thanks a lot for your clear explanation.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AGreatUserName

-nı is not an accusative ending though.

Pasta = cake Pastayı = cake (definite, accusative)

So if you had just put the suffixes in the wrong order you would have gotten "pastayım" (which incidentally means "I am cake")


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BaraaKhalaf

I don't wanna be a cheeky but may I also use "benim pastamın bütünü yerim"?


[deactivated user]

    you missed the accusative case

    bütün-ü-nü

    otherwise all is good


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/orde90

    all of the cake - pastanın tümü, pastanın hepsi

    all the cake - bütün pasta, tüm pasta


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/bramco2

    Is this any different from "Tüm pasta benim"?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AmFilip

    Why can't you say: I have the whole cake?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AlexinNotTurkey

    That is a different sentence in Turkish. "Tüm pasta bende."

    In general, when you have a specific direct object in a possessive sentence, you will use the locative in Turkish.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/httpsvk.cc977681

    Can we say " Benim tüm pastam var " ?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ievans.storrie

    is the 'ın' on 'pasta' possessing the pasta's wholeness (tümü), or is it related to the 'benim'?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AGreatUserName

    The -nın is the genitive suffix. Pastanın basically means "the cake's ..." It shows it's the possessor of the following word and has nothing to do with the benim.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Qaisra_izzat

    Evet, hepsi benim....lol


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TanelKagan

    No problem with this except that the audio for "benim" here is stressed BEN-im, instead of "ben-İM" which could cause some confusion.

    "Pastanın tümü ben-İM" is indeed "The whole (of the) cake is mine"

    BUT

    "Pastanın tümü BEN-im" would be "I am the whole (of the) cake"!


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TinDefacto

    Thank you for that gem of knowledge -- that's really great to know!!


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/HishamAhamad

    Can "The whole of the cake is mine" be accepted?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Selcen_Ozturk

    "the whole of the cake" doesn't work in English


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BronwenJon6

    It does. It means an entire single cake.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Aymanzoor

    Is it correct to say Tam pasta benim?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ryan47435765

    I think you mean "Tüm pasta benim." Anyway, I think that answer was accepted. I assume that "Pastanın tümü benim" is the more common way to express "The whole cake is mine" in Turkish (since it's the suggested translation). The literal/word-for-word translation into English "The cake's entirety is mine" (or some such) would sound rather odd to a native English speaker.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AlexinNotTurkey

    "tam" is more like "exactly/precisely"


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ValeriaBab6

    The cake is whole mine?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ryan47435765

    I think the problem is that “mine”, as a possessive pronoun, may be modified by adverbs (e.g. entirely) but not adjectives (whole).


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Eva242549

    Why is "the whole of the cake is mine" wrong?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TinDefacto

    Shouldn't "all of your cake is mine" also be accepted? Am I wrong in that this sentence is able to be interpreted that way? Or is that just not how that would be said in Turkish?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ishana92

    What is the difference between pasta tum and tum pasta? What diffeent order suggests, and which is natural?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/danikaadams

    Adjectives come before the noun they modify, so "tüm pasta" would be correct. If you say "pasta tüm," you have a noun and a predicate, as though you are trying to say "the cake is whole."


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/meAFrd

    Question: why in this sentence is TÜMÜ?

    I understand the -ü suffix is a the accusative form, but is it not the cake the receiver of the action ? The direct object ?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Eva242549

    There is no action and no direct object in this sentence. "All of the cake" is the subject of the sentence. The apparent "accusative" ending is in fact a "possessed" ending. See the early comments above.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TinDefacto

    If it helps, you can think of it as "The cake's entirety is mine."


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Samndunk

    Why isn't "The whole of the cake is mine" accepted? It is perhaps a little awkward, but not incorrect English


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Klaske767381

    Why isn't it translated as "All of the cake is mine"?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Eva242549

    pasta = cake makarna = pasta Annoying, isn't it? :)


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Driekie8

    Why pastanın?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/BronwenJon6

    I think it's because it's the whole of the cake, or, translated differently, the cake's entirety, so cake takes a possessive form.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RafiYeah

    Its more like saying that the whole of cake is mine


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Hayat154

    Why tümü ?? İ understood that it has the accusative suffix but how?? The object is cake so how??


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TinDefacto

    It's not that it's accusative; it's being possessed by the cake.

    Literally, the sentence reads "the cake's whole is mine" or "The whole of the cake is mine".

    I hope that helps!


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Hayat154

    -ü suffix because the last letter is consonant or else it would -nü right??


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/danikaadams

    No, if the last letter was a vowel, the 3rd per singular possessive ending would be -sü. (The buffer-n that you are thinking of would go after that ending, if a case were being added, like -sü-n-de. )

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