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  5. "Vem tillhör kedjan?"

"Vem tillhör kedjan?"

Translation:Who does the chain belong to?

April 4, 2015



I translated this as "Who belongs to the chain." (That doesn't make much sense, but there could be a group of people making up a human chain for a game perhaps.) So if "Vem tillhör kedjan?" means "Who does the chain belong to?" how would one ask, "Who belongs to the chain?"


It could mean either. Context/intonation would solve it. :)


Interesting. Thank you. Then should not my translation have been accepted?


I think so, yes.


Or would one rather say 'Vem hör till kedjan?'


Very late answer, but I just want to confirm that Who belongs to the chain has been an accepted answer for the last two years. As for the choice between Vem tillhör kedjan and Vem hör till kedjan, both are fine but Vem hör till is unambiguous.


Can it be: to whom belongs the chain?


That's not really part of modern standard English. I'm sure you could find it in dialects or old texts, but in modern English, the normal way of creating questions is by using the auxiliary do – unless the question starts with a question word.

Compare: Who owns the chain? this is normal because who is a question word.
If you start the sentence with to whom instead, that is not a question word, it's a prepositional phrase.
Another example: Who wrote the letter? but To whom did you send the letter? not To whom sent you the letter.


Yes and no. In spoken English you can get rid of the do/did by intonation/pitching your voice higher at the end of the sentence, turning any statement into a question. In written English you just add a question mark. "The milk is in the fridge?" "The chain belongs to you?" "The chain belongs to whom?" This structure is very common in spoken English or written English with dialog.
Scroll down to the last example http://m.wikihow.com/Change-a-Statement-to-Question


'To whom belongs the chain' isn't an example of that type of construction though, it would be as you said 'The chain belongs to you?'.

For the more colloquial question construction, we have the same thing in Swedish. If we aren't sure intonation alone will convey it, we often add for clarity. So we can say Kedjan tillhör dig? or Så kedjan tillhör dig? Or we add some sort of tag at the end, most commonly va: Kedjan är din, va? (there are a few other options, too).
This kind of question is very common in spoken Swedish.


The very formal way of saying it would be, "To whom does the chain belong?"


Is it equivalent to "Who owns the chain"?


That's the meaning, yes.


But "Who owns the chain" is marked as incorrect.


Yes, that's the meaning but not the sentence. "Who owns the chain?" is "Vem äger kedjan?"


I entered "Whose is the chain?" Should that not be accepted because you're trying to get the "belongs" in there, or should I report it next time around? Tack.


We want the belong in there.


jwbards, not only does your suggestion miss the "belongs", it also translate "vem" as "whose", which is not correct. It means "who".

It is true that your proposed sentence is "situationally equivalent" to the DL English sentence here, in the sense that a speaker might utter it in the same situation that the DL sentence would be said.

But the fact remains that that is not what was said here. Our job is to translate as accurately as possible what we are given.


Why is "who owns the chain" incorrect?


Because tillhöra = belong to.


I know it is a weird sentence but how would be ""who belongs to the chain?"


That's an accepted answer too. Scroll up to the first comment and read more about this.


Not "Whose chain is it?"


No, we're trying to teach the word tillhör, so we're a little strict. :)


What about Who belongs the chain to?


That isn't a good sentence in English, you need 'does' in the sentence.


Would, "To who does the chain belong to?" work here?


We do accept "To whom does the chain belong", but note that it should be "whom" and you only need the first "to".


How about "To whom does the chain belong?"


Sure, that's also accepted.

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