"Jag känner mig som om jag blivit överkörd av tåget."

Translation:I feel as if I had been run over by a train.

April 4, 2015

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In English I would say: I felt as if I had been run over, or, I feel as if I have been run over.... Isn't this mixing two different tense structures?


The tenses definitely have to match in English.


I'm wondering the same thing


Hur användbar en mening! But why is the har missing? Shouldn't it be ...om jag har blivit...?


Excellent post by Lundgren8 about this here: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/8788545


Ah, efficient. Tack så mycket!


Great explanation indeed! How do we dusting b/n har/hade forms (suppodely) used, so that we convey the meaning correctly in the translation? If the first verb used is in some past tense, expectedly the missing part would be hade (if we concord with sequence of tenses, still mentioned above as non obligatory??), but if the first/main verb is in its present form, this would leave us two options for the translation in English of the missing part, right?


typically in english it would be "run over by A train" rather than "THE train".. I guess the same doesn't apply to Swedish?


I'd also like to know this, because "by a train" sounds more like what I might say (or hear) in English. Can you say "av ett tåg" in Swedish?


Either way is perfectly fine in Swedish. For that reason, I'll be sure to add the "a train" and ett tåg versions in both languages, I don't really see any pedagogical reason to keep them separated here.


I agree with others that it is " I feel as if I have been..." . right?


Yes, that is correct English and idiomatic where I live in the U.S.


why "blivit" instead of "blev"? Why not "har blivit"?


Read the initial posts. Perfectly explained above!


Would this sentence also work without the 'om'?


It's debatable how proper the sentence would be, but every Swede would without a doubt understand it, and in some dialects it would even be the norm. I'd certainly recommend keeping it in writing, but it's not very important in everyday speech.


No, the om is needed for the sentence to be correct.


This is like what we say in English, "I feel like I've been run over by a truck."


Why is this: "I feel as if I had been runover by a train" and not "I feel as if I have been run over by a train" or "I felt as if I had been run over by a train"


The English translation is not good. You are right, "feel" goes with "have" and "felt" goes with "had." One doesn't say "I feel as if I had.."


way too fast the audio, I know the turtle option is there but still...


Is "överkörd" a past participle here (I got this Q in the Pron. Rel skill)?


I'd call it an adjective, but then again that's pretty much how past participles work in Swedish anyway.


So is it a bit like the difference between öppet and öppnat? Both used as adjectives but the latter being the past participle?


körd is definitely the past participle of köra, it's just that överköra isn't an actual verb. We'd use köra över for that - but does överkörd count as past participle of köra över, or is it a separate adjective on its own? I'd say the latter. But it's not clear.


Yes, that's perfect thank you!


Why doas she say "överSKörd" (med hard K, twice in this lesson) when there is not even S in that word? Is that really an alternative pronounciation for that word? Strange I never heard it before.

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