"One should not beat children."
Translation:Man ska inte slå barn.
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Okay. But while on the subject, is there a way to explain when "bör" would be preferred over "borde"? I found this sentence a few months ago in which both words are used. I haven't been able to find anyone able to explain the difference between them:
"Ambulanssjuksköterskan är nu angelägen över att åldersgränsen bör införas på energidrycker, man borde vara informativ om vad som kan hända med barn och unga som dricker detta."
Sure. As you probably know, bör is the present tense for böra, and borde is the past tense. (The infinitive is only very rarely used.)
Both languages are a bit weird here: English likes to use the past tense - i.e. "should" - even though "shall" doesn't have the same meaning, and Swedish doesn't really care about whether you use past or present.
Hence, there usually actually isn't a difference in meaning, but bör will often have a connotation of being more sure. You could say that while they both mean "should", borde can be a little closer to "might".
(Of course, if the entire sentence is in the past, it makes no sense to use the present. For instance: Klockan var redan sju, och han borde ha kommit för länge sedan. You can't use bör here.)
Your example follows this pattern. The nurse wants the restriction to be introduced, and thinks that information is a good idea.