"The man's books"
Translation:Adamın kitapları
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Adam=Man Adamın=Man's
Kitap=Book Kitaplar=Books Kitapları=Have books "ı" = have,has for example: Adamın kitapları= The man has books. = The man's books.
Did I explain well? ;) I am Turkish. You can write me for your asks
Evet , you explained very well Davut beyfendi..i am learing turkish...after watching series karadayı .
Hello im dying to be asking someone this..but why is it that sometimes ler like tesekkurler or iyi shamlar has a shh sound at the end whereas the same word ends with the ler by another author.
I honestly don't know why kitaplar becomes kitaplari, or another example kizin kedisi ? can someone please explain why it's kizin kedisi and why not kedi? thanks in advance
in Turkish both the possessor (adam) and the possessed thing (kitaplar) gets a suffix. This is explained also in the tips and notes, please read. In case you don't know, you can find them in a skill, below the list of lessons.
with examples:
- (benim) kedim
- (senin) kedin
- (onun) kedisi ("s" is a buffer letter, if the word ends with a consonant we don't have it, e.g. "onun kızı")
- Javon'un kedisi/Selcen'in kedisi/Ayşe'nin kedisi/Alex'in kedisi/Gül'ün kedisi/Adamın kedisi/Çocuğun kedisi/Kızın kedisi/Köpeğin kedisi etc.
- (bizim) kedimiz
- (sizin) kediniz
- Onların kedisi/ (Onların) kedileri
All things are cleard but only one thing that line - if word ends with consonant we don't need buffer 'S' please elaborate..please
Kedi got a vowel as a last letter so it's, "(Onun) kedi(s)i". Kuş finishes with consonant so it will be "(Onun) kuşu, kalemi or papağanı".
I'm hardly the one to try to answer this but from what others more knowledgeable have said, I think it's because in a possessive situation, the thing 'possessed' also has to take an ending to indicate that.
the exercise told me that i had a typo when i used erkekin instead of adamın. could somebody tell me when to use erkek and when to use adam?
I'm also confused about difference between erkek and adam - help please?
"Adam" is the word for man. "Erkek" is mostly used to disambiguate gender (and is more like "male" or in a slangier sense "guys.")
"insan" is the word for "man/human being" :)
Little confused by this. I get why Kitaplar becomes Kitaplar(i) (wrong keyboard), but why is Adam not Adam(i). Doesn't Adamin mean your man?
Is it like, 'your mans (there)'s books' a bit like they would colloquially say in Ireland?
Baffled :)
Adamın means two things
- Your man
- Of the man/The man's
-in ending is used to specify the THING/PERSON that owns the object. for comparison it's like 's in English.
when forming compound words, the main object (in this example: kitaplar) always take -i ending. this ending shows that this object belongs to SOMETHING/SOMEONE, it's not any ordinary alone thing. for comparison it's a bit like de in French and Spanish.
Adamın kitapları - the books of the man / the man's books
So we make sure it's clear both who owns the object and which object is owned. we do it because the word order in Turkish is so flexible and we don't want to lose the meaning if we seperate these two words.
Check the last section of Tips and Notes of the "Possesives" lesson (titled "Be Careful"). They talk about how the -In suffix can be more than one thing, and sometimes has to be added twice.
why isn't it "Adami kitapları" the suffix of possession in 3rd Perf. Sg. is "-(s)i" , or am I wrong? Its "the man's books" that means "its" or "his" books, which (to me) is 3 Perf. Sg. Thanks for help
The "owner" gets the suffix "-(n)In" and the "ownee" gets the suffix "-(s)I" :)
I am confused on why the correct answer is "kitaplari" and not "kitaplarini".
"kitaplarını" has both the possessive suffix AND the accusative case. There is no need for the accusative case here (there is no verb!)
in the 3rd person singular ("adam") the possessor and possessed ending do not match. the 3rd person sing possessed ending is -(s)I, so "adamın kitapları". the possessed ending -In is for the 2nd person sing (you) form.
why don t we say "adami" instead of "adamin"? it is on a third person, isn t it? can "adamin kitaplari" translate as " your man' s books"? i mean is it wrong to say "Adami kitaplari" ?
It is wrong. This is not a possessive ending, but rather the genitive case ( -(n)In ). If you wanted to say "Your man's books" it would be "adamının kitapları" :)