I'm native German, I did not understand "Jacken" at all. She says "Jaden" to me, which has no meaning at all.
Absolutely!!!!!!!!! I didn't even write the last word, because I couldn't figure it out....Hence I got it wrong.
I realize this isn't the place to report this, but as other reporting methods have failed, I just wanted to let you know that this bug seems to be back - the audio file is once again saying "jaden." I assume someone moved the library around?
That's what it sounded like to me. I think this was not a very good recording and just did not pick up her enunciation of the hard "k" sound.
umm what I don't get is.. if you are native german, why are you learning German. Or are the questions common for German and English? :P
Same here. They have only skipped pronouncing "b" or "d" when they are placed in front of the sound "n", but didn't know they do the same for "k"
Yep. I heard no k... Ich sehe keine /k/? Wrong verb, but anyway. Sounded more like a /b/, bilabial occlusive.
Not sure what the fuss is all about. Sentence means: no one has Yachtin.
In my view the German sentence with plural Jacken is unnatural. It would only make sense if you expect several jackets per person. If the intent is to say that there is nobody with a coat, the correct German sentence is Keiner hat eine Jacke (singular). If you go shopping for a coat and do not find any, you can complain that Keiner (none of the merchants you visited) hat Jacken, expecting that each of the shops should have more than one in stock.
Yes. Niemand is a valid substitute.
I'm not certain, but I suppose the difference is that "niemand" is straight up "no one", but "keiner" here would be short for "Keiner dieser Menschen" or "None of these people", so perhaps it has connotations of "nobody HERE" rather than "nobody AT ALL".
whats the difference between 'Neimand' and 'Keiner'. It can be 'Neimand hat Jacken', right?
Could someone please explain why "Keiner" needs to be used here? Could other inflections of kein go as well?
Nope, I hear it as "jagen" instead of "jacken". Of course maybe I'm just being sloppy and being rusty with my vocabulary doesn't help, but still.
No one is singular here. I would say "No one has a jacket," unless I am trying to make the point that no one has more than one jacket.
Because 'no one' is the same as 'none of them'. 'None' is too general and needs you to specify 'none of what', either directly or referring back to a noun in the sentence before
"Jacken" means "jackets/coats", because of "-en" ending, so, the answer to Your question is No.
..except none is singular in English so none has a jacket... and we would say no-one rather than none.
No dude , none is considered plural in real British english EX:(and then there were none) "a novel for agatha christie" But it can be used :/
I think "Keine hat Jacken" should be also taken as right. For example if we would speak about women.
Its possible to turn speakers off in settings if the sound quality frustrates you too much
it is possible, but when the instructions say, "type what you hear", turning off the speakers kind of defeats the purpose, LOL
When kein stands alone as a pronoun, rather than in front of a noun, it takes endings in the nominative case as well (and, for neuter nouns, in the accusative).
Keiner is used here as a
Glad to know im not the only one that has no idea wtf is being said half the time.
I agree she clearly says Jaden--she never pronounces Jacken or Jacke understandably, but now I sometimes guess it right now from experience.
More importantly I see that keiner is the masuline nominative of kein-. In this case why can't the feminine nominative, Keine be used? Is the masuline always assumed? I haven't seen any rules about this. thanks
I have been studying German in school for 4 years and I still automaticlly tend to translate "hat" in my head to "had" in English. As I have learned English from grade 3 it maybe sticks with me forever. Does anyone have that problem too?
Yes, I fall into that trap all the time too. In English since verbs that end in T are past tense (examples: slept, dealt, learnt) I tend to think the same with German (examples: dankt, hilft, kocht) as past tense too. i.e. thanked instead of thanks, helped instead of helps, and cooked instead of cooks.
Can someone explain the appearing of "keiner" in this sentence? Why does it end with "-er", could there be any other endings, etc? Stop commenting about "jaden/jacken" stuff, it is reported, just wait for a fix.. Thank You
I know :) but the translation in English that duolingo gave was "none has jackets" which isn't a phrase
I got this wrong and i understand why. The answer that comes up is "none has a jacket" which is not even English. The answer at the top of the discussion is "no one has a jacket" is clearly right.
It's not dative but rather masculine nominative singular.
See my response to Hectorcano (currently right above your comment).
How it become native mascule. Jacken is die. Can you explain to me please?
That doesn't work, for the same reason that "Nobody has jacket." doesn't.
I agree with Hilary59668. "No one has jackets" sounds awkward, unless you're talking about several stores not stocking them as someone else suggested. "No one (or "nobody") has a jacket" is more common English, even though the German uses the plural for jackets. Is there some nuance in German that would make someone have to say "Keiner hat eine Jacke?" Or is it just that what sounds normal in German sounds odd in English? And if that's the case, Duo should accept "No one has a jacket." It would be the same if answered the other way: "Everyone has a jacket" not "Everyone has jackets" unless you're saying that everyone has multiple jackets.
I agree that sometimes the audio is intelligible. This time however the English translation is wrong. In German, Jacken might be plural but the English translation is singular as the sentence really says, ‘not one person has a jacket.’ The subject is singular therefore in zEnglish the object is singular too as each person only needs one jacket.
keiner “nobody” versus niemals “never”.
Or were you thinking of niemand? That also means “nobody”.
I don’t think there’s much difference between the two. Perhaps a bit like the situation with “nobody” versus “no-one”.
I'm on the desktop version and it sounds very clear and in a new voice compared to when I did this course around 2015.