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So is this treated as if who were an adjective, so it has to be conjugated for person and number?
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I'm guessing, but I think "kimim" is not an adjective, but actually the predicate (although adjectives can apparently be "turned into a predicate" in the same way): "I who-am?"
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I wouldn't be surprised if it turned out to be "Ben kiminim?", tacking on the genitive -in to make "whose" and then the -im to make "am I".
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Actually, looking at that, it makes sense, I shall just confirm by asking the nearest Turk...
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Funny, in Polish we also use "kim " for "who" : "kim jestem" = who am I, "kim on jest" =who is he or "kim jesteś" = who are you
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Is the ending -im necessary or could you also ask "Ben kim?" Or for a more common situation, would you need to say "Siz kimsiniz?" or would the shorter "Siz kim?" suffice?
You have to use the personal endings in Turkish. :)
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No.
whom asks after an object, but "to be" does not take an object in the objective case, it joins a subject to a predicate in the nominative case.
At least traditionally -- in the sort of grammar where you would use whom, you would also say it is I.
If you say it's me, then you probably wouldn't be using whom in the first place.
