https://www.duolingo.com/nikodemanthony

Question about future tense

When I'm saying that I'm going to the market (Voy a ir al mercado), would I need to use 'a' after 'voy'? Because, as I'm aware, it would literally translate to 'I'm going to to go to the market'. Do I always need to add the 'a' before the infinitive verb?

So, instead of: 'Voy a ir al mercado', I could say, 'Voy ir al mercado'?

Thanks for any answers.

3 years ago

14 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/rocko2012
rocko2012
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Searching in Spanish books at https://books.google.com/ngrams suggest "Voy ir al" is not correct. The fact it is easier to write and say means if it was right it would undoubtedly show up in Spanish books and it does not.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nikodemanthony

Thank you! Everyone else wasn't even answering my question, just giving me alternatives!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Taloua
Taloua
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It's better to use the simple future ( iré al mercado )

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Denfisksson

It's not worse or better, it just depends on the situation.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rspreng

many Spanish speakers rarely use the simple future, and in some places it is being used less and less, the 'ir a' construction being used almost exclusively in spoken language.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nikodemanthony

It would be pretty hard to memorize all of the simple future (so how -ir, -er and -ar end), and also all the verbs that are irregular in the simple future.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Denfisksson

Yes you need to put the A after the verb IR.

Voy A ir Al mercado ----- I'm going TO go TO the market.

That's the literal translation. Nothing weird here.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nikodemanthony

That's not what I mean: I'm talking about the 'a' between 'voy' and 'ir'. Because 'ir' translates to 'to go' in English. 'a' means 'to' in English as well, therefore, if you put 'a' before the infinitive, it should translate to 'to to go' in English (literally, not necessarily gramatically.), and I'm asking whether I could remove the 'a' before the infinitive verb 'ir' and the sentence would still mean the same thing. Basically:

Do the following two sentences mean the same thing: 'Voy a ir al mercado' 'Voy ir al mercado'

I'm only asking whether the 'a' before the infinitive (infinitive being 'comer' 'beber' 'hablar' 'vivir' etc.) is necessary.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Denfisksson

Well, I see what you want to ask. It may be a silly sentence but the A is necessary only when it is necessary :)

"Vor ir al mercado" makes no sense at all, it is grammatically incorrect.

The verbal periphrasis IR A is like GOING TO in English. What I mean is that you put an A in front of this verb but not in front of the verbs which are not periphrasis (those you mentioned 'comer, hablar, vivir, etc') aren't part of any.

Here you have a very useful link. I think this is a really hard part of the Spanish language so, for now, I would just learn it as it is without asking myself 'why'.

http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/109

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nikodemanthony

Thanks

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sebastosiano

You could think it like an answer to the question:

"A donde vas ?"

  • "Voy A ir al mercado." Es decir:

"A donde... ?" "voy A"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nikodemanthony

Good point, but I think that the answer is 'Voy a ir Al mercado'. See, the question is 'where are you going', so the answer is the place you're going to. The answer is 'al mercado' not 'a ir' But again, good point.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sebastosiano

Actually, the answer is the action of going, not the place in this case. Maybe it should be "Voy al mercado", but in real life there is no contradiction between "voy a ir al mercado" and "voy al mercado".

"Voy a ir al mercado" would be more proper answer to "¿que vas a hacer ?"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Klgregonis
Klgregonis
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Sometimes you need to use what one of my teachers referred to as the "because" rule - or rule 99, as I've seen it referred to occasionally. This is one of those places where a literal word for word translation is absolutely confusing.

3 years ago
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