Well, if you don't know how to say that in Spanish then it doesn't count
Duo! Things are starting to get a bit rough around here. First you want to surpass Luis and now we abandoning this guy?
Every time I translate lo as him, it is marked wrong and corrected to "it." So this time I us "it" and I get "also him would be ok." I don't understand.
"It" or "him", both are equally correct. I think that's Duolingo's error. Hopefully it's been fixed by now.
Lo is the direct object pronoun. Meaning it is what you are talking about. It is the object receiving the action. Therefore, depending on the context, it could translate to it, or him. The direct object pronoun could also be La, if you are talking about a female, or a feminine object.
"We are going to leave him" is shown as incorrect, although abandonar is defined to include the meaning "leave".
I wrote: We are going to leave it. DL corrected me with: We are going to abandon it. I think I am equally correct with my translation. Anyone else agree?
no. there is a difference. if you leave something then you might intend to come back for it, but if you abandon something there is no hope.
Lo is the direct object pronoun (meaning him or it), le is the indirect object pronoun (meaning to him, to her, to you (formal) or to it). This website may help clear the confusion up over Spanish direct/indirect object pronouns.
It is still directed TO him so that still doesn't clear up my confusion as to why lo instead of le.
It is not TO him, because he is the direct object here. The direct object answers the question who or what in regard to what the subject of the sentence is doing. Who are we going to abandon? Him or it, not to him or to it. The indirect object tells you where the direct object is going and answers the question to whom or for whom the action is being performed. Ella le compra un libro, she buys him/her a book or she buys a book for him/her. The book is the direct object and him/her would be the indirect object in my example. I hope that clears up your confusion.
This is the first time I've actually understood the distinction! Thanks. Have a lingot.
"Lo" is used in writing as it is grammatically correct, but in speech, most SA Spanish speakers use "le" when referring to a person. It's called "leismo".
"Never leave a man behind!" I like the comments as much as I appreciate the translation help/discussion. This is a great example.
great job, duolingo. This will TOTALLY be helpful to know when I'm visiting Mexico. :(
It's not incorrect. "Vamos" can be either "Let's" (imperative mood) or "We are going" (present indicative). I believe it was marked wrong because this lesson was about the present indicative (I am going, we are going) and STRICTLY through Duolingo, you haven't "learned" the imperative mood (let's). That would be my guess. A fantastic site for these things is StudySpanish.com
Also, I forgot, the * IR + infinitive* is going to be indicative, the the answer says. So, I was wrong. The answer cannot be "let's abandon it" because of the little "a" in the sentence but if you take that out then yes, it's "let's abandon it"
I hear an “a" sound on the end of this pronunciation of abandonar. Is this correct? An “ara“ sound rather than just “ar“?
Hello! Unless it's a real glitch in the system (let's hope not!) , the reason that you heard that is because of HOW you say the Spanish R. When it's at the end of a word, your tongue comes up (very quickly) to tap the roof of your mouth, as part of the R sound. That's why the Spanish R sounds a lot more "three-dimensional" than our English one. Examples here: https://youtu.be/j11Qy4dL67g :-)
Wouldn't it be (lo vamos a abandonar a él), if we are talking about a person. That is what I understand. I need comments here folks.
That's what I understood as well. If we are right, this sentence would actually mean "We are going to abandon it." Someone who knows better should chime in and enlighten us.
"Let's leave it" is a different verb tense, I believe it's more imperative than future
Would the 2 "a"s adjacent to one another take up 2 seconds of the same letter or be pronounced seperately?
I'm not for sure, but I think "lo" is only used for him and it. "La" (the feminine of this pronoun) is meant for her and it. (Also fyi: Lo/La are direct object pronouns.)
So, would have " we are going to abandon it" be right here too? Just asking my far more knowledgeable peers.
Why is there an a before "abandonar"? I'm reading it like: We are going to to abandon it/him. ?
It's acceptable to pop the 'le' on the end of the verb instead right? 'vamos a abandarle'?