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  5. "Hola, buenos días."

"Hola, buenos días."

Translation:Hello, good morning.

December 20, 2012

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Why is it incorrect to translate this as both good morning and good afternoon? In the notes tab it says both are acceptable.


well, in theory, 13:00 is 'afternoon' (past 12:00) but we would still say good morning.

We consider 'la tarde' to begin after we have the main meal (about 14:00 - 15:00) [Spain].


So would you say "buenas tardes" then?


It says buenos not buenas


Dias is morning, noches is evening


Same thing as evening


and both are plural. why isn't it bueno dia? i mean, what is the reason?


Because the afternoon is at 12 o clock and the morning is whrn the sun comes up


Yeah I think so too


The same questions.(


How do you know when to use "buenas" or "buenos"?


Hola Amigo motoons: In Spanish the modifying word (the adjective) must agree with the noun it is modifying in number and gender. So a feminine noun must have a feminine modifier and a masculine noun must have a masculine modifier. A singular word must have a singular modifier and a plural noun must have a plural modifier. So...... "días" is a masculine, plural word and therefore must have a masculine, plural modifier, "buenos". "Noches" and "tardes" are feminine, plural words and therefore must have feminine, plural modifiers, "buenas". Ciao.


día descends from a neuter (third gender, neither masculine nor feminine) word in Latin, which is why it doesn't look like a normal masculine word


Untrue. "Dia" descends from lat. "dies", which is a masculine (e-declination). It isn't a neuter.


I thought "diem" was day in Latin.. (or is that just one of the declining forms?) don't know how they got a from em. Oh well...


Dia descents from the Latin word "dies" which is a masculine of the "e-declination". "Diem" is a declined version of "dies". It is an accusative (4th case) to be precise. "Carpe diem" might be an example most people know :-)


Hola lily: But then, this is a Spanish course, not Latin. :-)


Lisagnipura- spanish is based off latin


Know what ot means


does this not mean "Good Day"?!


Actually, 'good days'


How often do you use both hello and good morning in the same sentence? I'm from Sweden and it just sounds wierd to me!


Fun fact, learned from native Spanish speakers: Buenos días starts at midnight, not at sunrise (as I had previously assumed). I work overnight, so the distinction is important.


why can't it be hi, goodmorning


Hola Phillip107: That sounds good to me, but you have to separate "good" and "morning".


Glenbelt: día is a masculine word (el día), even if it ends with a


That is actually weird , beacuse it is El díA , La nochE , La tardE


They should change that.


tell me about it


why is it buenos dias for good morning and buenas noches for good evening, why does the o in bueno change to a in buena?


Hekinadedul replied, but not directly to you, so I'll post it here: dia (i.e. el dia) is a masculine word, so you use the masculine "buenos" while noches (i.e. la noche or las noches) is a feminie word, which calls for the feminine "buenas"


Counter intuitive as hell with the a on the end of dia because I usually associate the a with feminine words. Do adjectives (if possible) become feminine or masculine based on the noun they modify?


The rule of thumb where a word ending in "o" is masculine and a word ending in "a" is feminine mostly works, except when it doesn't! Yes, indeed counter-intuitive.

I'll try to answer your question to the best of my ability, but anyone else feel free to chime in:

  • you can say "el lindo dia" (the beautiful day) in which case "lindo" gets the "o" ending because it's used with a masculine word (dia)

  • this is also the case if you say "el dia es muy lindo" (the day is very beautiful) Lindo still gets the "o" ending because although it is not "next to" the word dia, it is still referring to it and therefore gets the masculine "o" ending.

  • When you say "la linda mujer" (the beautiful woman) or "la mujer es muy linda" (the woman is very beautiful) it gets the "a" ending because it's being used with a feminine word.

Hope that answers your question!


All particles with gender must agree to the gender of the nouns/people mentioned. That goes for articles, adjectives, pronouns, nouns, etc


Hola Lisagnipura, I will answer to you here because I cannot reply to your comment. I am talking of Spanish grammar, where phrasal verbs do not exist as they do in English. In Spanish, the rule of gender concordance must be applied at all times. With 'particle' I mean any of the grammar elements building a sentence (nouns, verbs, conjunctions, prepositions, ...). Zbuddhaha wanted to know if adjectives belong to the group of variable elements depending on the gender (and number) of the noun being referred to. The answer is yes (except for those who are irregular and do not manifest change, such as 'azul', coche azul, bolsa azul). Verbs, or adverbs, do not belong to that group.


Hola Santi_Minstrel: Verbs do not have gender so how can you say that "particles with gender must agree...". A particle is a part of a multipart verb, such as "up" in "grow up". Or do you have another definition for "particle"? Gracias.


That was very thorough, gracias.


You are very smart.


In the previous slides of this lesson it directly said that Buenos dias is translated as both good day and good morning. Can someone please help clarify why I got them wrong in choosing both answers


Jared: You will have to ask Duo directly or "Report a Problem".


My sentence (Hola. Buenos dias.) in Spanish was correct, letter for letter, except I had a full stop after Hola and they had a comma. Why is my sentence wrong?


Likely a programming mistake. The programmers didn't take into account that someone might put a period instead of a comma and thus your sentence was (incorrectly) marked wrong.


You should have reported that. It it probably too late unless you are willing to get it wrong again because as far as I know you cannot report old problems once you've moved on.


What's up with the accents? I don't understand them anymore. In high school, I was an advanced Spanish speaker, having taken classes my whole life. That was well over a decade ago. I can't remember the rules regarding it, and I'm warned about them pretty frequently in this app. Anyone care to reeducate me???


accents indicate where to stress a word when speaking. Without an accented letter a word would follow the usual linguistic rules of Spanish regarding stress placement. You need to pay attention to accents because without accents some words can be completely different. For example Sí = yes, Si = if. Cómo = how, Como = as/like, Qué = what, Que = that. Etc.


I am a native spanish speaker And i would like to teach you about them but i never vared about them


Can i ignore the s at the end and say buenos dia?


No, the adjective is plural, meaning the noun is also plural.


But shouldn't this mean "Good Days / Good Mornings" ? Please clarify :)


IslamNegm and Justin92d, if you want to ignore the "s" then you have to write the sentence like this: "Buen día".


Isn't "goodmorning" correct?


no, because they are two different words, good and morning, you cannot join them. Moreover, there is a hola which must be translated (hi, hello, ...)


Then why is it correct to say "goodnight"? good and night are two different words too


The reason is that "goodnight" has become one word in English, while "good" and "night" remain separate words in other contexts. This is something that can happen over a long period of time. Another example of the phenomenon is "tomorrow", which used to be "to morrow".


After searching several dictionaries, I cannot find "goodnight" as one word. Do you have a source for that, or why do you think it is one word? In the dictionaries it is two words: "good night". Any information you can give will be appreciated. Gracias.


Linguistic morphism. Some English speaking cultures write certain phrases phonetically instead of their proper form. In theory, good morning would evolve the same way - except the double consonants 'd' and 'm' discourage English speakers from conjoining them, unlike 'd' and 'n' - which both roll off the tongue specifically. You are right in that 'goodnight' is not technically correct, though it is accepted as such.


I think it's commonly used as one word, even though it's probably not technically correct. I know I always text "goodnight" instead of "good night."


You might have an old dictionary. The phrase must have changed later in history and only in the English dialect.


I've never read goodnight as a single word. It's not in any dictionary either. Why do you think it's correct?


that is different


Goodmornig not right good-mornig right


"Good morning" is actually spelled with an "n" between the "i" and the "g"


Why cant i put hey for hi


I am so glad in the Spanish language course they teach this at the beginning!


Is there a dif between buenas and buenos?


So, to write "hey" is wrong....


yes, because Hola literally means Hello, not hey.


Yes, because "hey" is not in the Spanish dialect.


Why is "Buenos Dias" plural when really we are just talking about one day. No one has even been able to answer that for me...


!Hola! goldilocks 101: "Buenos días" is plural because it has the consonant “s” You obviously can say in Spanish “buen día”, when referring to it as a day, one says “‘un día”. The day: “el dia” When forming the plural one must say: “Buenos días”, some more plurals: “unos días”, and “los días”, etcétera.


You can say "buen dia" it also means good morning And if you wish good mornings for somebody it is nicer than wishing just one


I wish I had a better answer for you, but I think it's just a "thing" - the way you might say "Just a minute" when someone asks you for help. Is it exactly 60 seconds that you are going to keep them waiting? Definitely not. But still, we say it... I believe it's the same with "buenos dias"

On another note, you got me curious, so I just searched and found this: http://spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/513/why-buenas-noches-when-its-only-one-night

Look at the 3rd reply down which has a section highlighted in yellow. It starts with "The origin of the plural forms as a way of greeting has to be searched in the past." - I think that can help answer your question.


goldilocks: That is just how it is. "Buenos días" means "Good Morning".


dias is masculine I suppose?


When do you use buenas and buenos dias? I got two questions wrong becuase i do not understand the difference.


Hola Vickaaay: Already discussed in some detail above.`


when do you use Buenos and when do you use buenas


It depends on the gender of the noun you are referring to.

If the noun you are referring to is masculine, you use "buenos" (EXAMPLE: "buenos dias")

If the noun you are referring to is feminine, you use "buenas" (EXAMPLE "buenas noches")


when is it buenos vs buenas ? i'm so cornfuzzed.....


Adjectives match the nouns. Use Buenos with plural masculine and Buenas with plural feminine. There is an 80/20 rule in Spanish. Nouns ending with A are 80% likely to be feminine and nouns ending in O are 80% likely to be masculine. Día is a 20% exception, a masculine noun with an A ending.


Can i ignore the s at the end and say buenos dia?


The modifier in spanish has to match the noun in number and gender so the only way to say this is " Buenos Dias" ( "días" is plural and masculine although it ends with A ,( it's an exception ). Therefore the adjective has to go from "Buen" to "buenO" and finally to "buenOS"


why does it say "hello, good morning"? wouldnt you just say "good morning" or "hello" as a greeting?


why buenos for beunos dias but buenas for tarde and noches????


Why is incorrect it could be both of them


I almost got it right...I wrote: Hola. Buenos dias. I lost points for the period instead of using a comma...Meh...


Your answer should have been accepted. You should have reported that.


Hola Santi_Minstrel: Thanks. Is there a word in Spanish for "particle" when referring to grammar? I know "partícula" when referring to nuclear physics, etc., but to grammar?


Partícula is not limited to science. A 'partícula gramatical' can be informally used to refer to words or part of words with some specific meaning. For instance, I may say that japanese tends to end a question with an interrogative particle (-ka) as in kohi wa ikuradesuka?


Might be a dumb question but I haven't seen it yet - Why not "Bueno dia?" If I greet someone with "good day" I'm taking about this day, not every day.


It's like an idiom greeting. Its simply the way you greet someone in Spanish. I think the true reason why it is plural is unknown.


There are some places where people use "buen día" as "good morning" too. :)


Why it is buenOs dias and buenAs noches ??


When do you use Buenos and buenas


You use Buenos ONLY when saying Buenos Dias. For all the other times of the day (ex. tardes, noches) you use buenas (ex. Buenas tardes, Buenas noches) I hope that helps you!


Hola buenos dias, buenos noches, or buenos buenos tardes whatever time of day you are reading this feom


What's Buenos and buennas's different?


All along i thought it was diaz with a "z".


"Díaz" is only used as a last name and "días" as the plural of "el día" :)


I thought dias meant day and not morning? I seem to recall that there is another word for "morning" other than dias? idiomas?


can it be buenas dias


It should ssy BUENAS


Both should be right. Buianos dias is good morning/day and noches is night/evening


Can anyone help me.. How ll u tell good afternoon in Spanish?


How ll u say "good afternoon" ?


I don't understand why both aren't acceptable. I've heard people say "hi, good afternoon."


Confused when to use buenos and buenas


I just started Spanish and I don't know how to spell everything correctly and it is always wrong.


I am getting confused in using tilde on the letters...when to use to use and when not...or i have to learn the word?


OK DUDEs my original question had nothing to do with night, day, morning, or afternoon. What is the difference between buenOs and buenAs? When I see buenos dia it is spelled with an O, when I see buenas tarde it is spelled with an A. Google Translate says both spelling means "Good" Just wanted to know where the technicality is,..... not a big deal, .....but I am curious


It could be both actually


It didn't ask me to translate anything. Just choose dias or noches after "Hola, buenos..." Why is noches wrong? I guess it would be weird to say after hello but I'm not sure why that is linguistically incorrect.


Sorry I realised in the next question noches is fem., so it would be buenas noches not buenos. I thought I'd leave this up in case anyone else forgot though.


Something is wrong wit a note tabs


how do you know if they are asking for good morning or for good afternoon?


how could you know if it was the morning or the night that is not cool people!


why we can't say buenos noches??


good morning to you to


why doesn't hi work?


I just dont under stand how it could be wrong i chose night due to it being night


Fa cagare sta frase


Did not understand this


well, hi works too


it told me it meant good days then scolded me for using the plural. It told me to!


Literally, it means 'good days'. But in English the expression used is just good morning


Is "Hola, buenos dais," the common way to say it? "Hello, good morning,"seems redundant to me in English


Yes, it is the most polite form (though spelled "Hola, buenos días").


It is redundant in Spanish also. In fact some people just say "Bueno/as" as a greeting. Hola, Buenos días is the most polite form.


i said hey and it was wrong


Hola literally means Hello, not hey.


Again, a single misspelt/misplaced letter should still result in a score

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