"Hola, buenos días."
Translation:Hello, good morning.
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Why is it incorrect to translate this as both good morning and good afternoon? In the notes tab it says both are acceptable.
well, in theory, 13:00 is 'afternoon' (past 12:00) but we would still say good morning.
We consider 'la tarde' to begin after we have the main meal (about 14:00 - 15:00) [Spain].
and both are plural. why isn't it bueno dia? i mean, what is the reason?
día descends from a neuter (third gender, neither masculine nor feminine) word in Latin, which is why it doesn't look like a normal masculine word
Untrue. "Dia" descends from lat. "dies", which is a masculine (e-declination). It isn't a neuter.
How often do you use both hello and good morning in the same sentence? I'm from Sweden and it just sounds wierd to me!
Hola Phillip107: That sounds good to me, but you have to separate "good" and "morning".
In the previous slides of this lesson it directly said that Buenos dias is translated as both good day and good morning. Can someone please help clarify why I got them wrong in choosing both answers
Hola Amigo motoons: In Spanish the modifying word (the adjective) must agree with the noun it is modifying in number and gender. So a feminine noun must have a feminine modifier and a masculine noun must have a masculine modifier. A singular word must have a singular modifier and a plural noun must have a plural modifier. So...... "días" is a masculine, plural word and therefore must have a masculine, plural modifier, "buenos". "Noches" and "tardes" are feminine, plural words and therefore must have feminine, plural modifiers, "buenas". Ciao.
no, because they are two different words, good and morning, you cannot join them. Moreover, there is a hola which must be translated (hi, hello, ...)
Then why is it correct to say "goodnight"? good and night are two different words too
The reason is that "goodnight" has become one word in English, while "good" and "night" remain separate words in other contexts. This is something that can happen over a long period of time. Another example of the phenomenon is "tomorrow", which used to be "to morrow".
After searching several dictionaries, I cannot find "goodnight" as one word. Do you have a source for that, or why do you think it is one word? In the dictionaries it is two words: "good night". Any information you can give will be appreciated. Gracias.
Linguistic morphism. Some English speaking cultures write certain phrases phonetically instead of their proper form. In theory, good morning would evolve the same way - except the double consonants 'd' and 'm' discourage English speakers from conjoining them, unlike 'd' and 'n' - which both roll off the tongue specifically. You are right in that 'goodnight' is not technically correct, though it is accepted as such.
I think it's commonly used as one word, even though it's probably not technically correct. I know I always text "goodnight" instead of "good night."
You might have an old dictionary. The phrase must have changed later in history and only in the English dialect.
I've never read goodnight as a single word. It's not in any dictionary either. Why do you think it's correct?
"Good morning" is actually spelled with an "n" between the "i" and the "g"
Fun fact, learned from native Spanish speakers: Buenos días starts at midnight, not at sunrise (as I had previously assumed). I work overnight, so the distinction is important.
My sentence (Hola. Buenos dias.) in Spanish was correct, letter for letter, except I had a full stop after Hola and they had a comma. Why is my sentence wrong?
Likely a programming mistake. The programmers didn't take into account that someone might put a period instead of a comma and thus your sentence was (incorrectly) marked wrong.
You should have reported that. It it probably too late unless you are willing to get it wrong again because as far as I know you cannot report old problems once you've moved on.
IslamNegm and Justin92d, if you want to ignore the "s" then you have to write the sentence like this: "Buen día".
What's up with the accents? I don't understand them anymore. In high school, I was an advanced Spanish speaker, having taken classes my whole life. That was well over a decade ago. I can't remember the rules regarding it, and I'm warned about them pretty frequently in this app. Anyone care to reeducate me???
accents indicate where to stress a word when speaking. Without an accented letter a word would follow the usual linguistic rules of Spanish regarding stress placement. You need to pay attention to accents because without accents some words can be completely different. For example Sí = yes, Si = if. Cómo = how, Como = as/like, Qué = what, Que = that. Etc.
I am a native spanish speaker And i would like to teach you about them but i never vared about them
why is it buenos dias for good morning and buenas noches for good evening, why does the o in bueno change to a in buena?
Hekinadedul replied, but not directly to you, so I'll post it here: dia (i.e. el dia) is a masculine word, so you use the masculine "buenos" while noches (i.e. la noche or las noches) is a feminie word, which calls for the feminine "buenas"
Counter intuitive as hell with the a on the end of dia because I usually associate the a with feminine words. Do adjectives (if possible) become feminine or masculine based on the noun they modify?
The rule of thumb where a word ending in "o" is masculine and a word ending in "a" is feminine mostly works, except when it doesn't! Yes, indeed counter-intuitive.
I'll try to answer your question to the best of my ability, but anyone else feel free to chime in:
you can say "el lindo dia" (the beautiful day) in which case "lindo" gets the "o" ending because it's used with a masculine word (dia)
this is also the case if you say "el dia es muy lindo" (the day is very beautiful) Lindo still gets the "o" ending because although it is not "next to" the word dia, it is still referring to it and therefore gets the masculine "o" ending.
When you say "la linda mujer" (the beautiful woman) or "la mujer es muy linda" (the woman is very beautiful) it gets the "a" ending because it's being used with a feminine word.
Hope that answers your question!
All particles with gender must agree to the gender of the nouns/people mentioned. That goes for articles, adjectives, pronouns, nouns, etc
Hola Lisagnipura, I will answer to you here because I cannot reply to your comment. I am talking of Spanish grammar, where phrasal verbs do not exist as they do in English. In Spanish, the rule of gender concordance must be applied at all times. With 'particle' I mean any of the grammar elements building a sentence (nouns, verbs, conjunctions, prepositions, ...). Zbuddhaha wanted to know if adjectives belong to the group of variable elements depending on the gender (and number) of the noun being referred to. The answer is yes (except for those who are irregular and do not manifest change, such as 'azul', coche azul, bolsa azul). Verbs, or adverbs, do not belong to that group.
Hola Santi_Minstrel: Verbs do not have gender so how can you say that "particles with gender must agree...". A particle is a part of a multipart verb, such as "up" in "grow up". Or do you have another definition for "particle"? Gracias.
Why is "Buenos Dias" plural when really we are just talking about one day. No one has even been able to answer that for me...
!Hola! goldilocks 101: "Buenos días" is plural because it has the consonant “s” You obviously can say in Spanish “buen día”, when referring to it as a day, one says “‘un día”. The day: “el dia” When forming the plural one must say: “Buenos días”, some more plurals: “unos días”, and “los días”, etcétera.
You can say "buen dia" it also means good morning And if you wish good mornings for somebody it is nicer than wishing just one
I wish I had a better answer for you, but I think it's just a "thing" - the way you might say "Just a minute" when someone asks you for help. Is it exactly 60 seconds that you are going to keep them waiting? Definitely not. But still, we say it... I believe it's the same with "buenos dias"
On another note, you got me curious, so I just searched and found this: http://spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/513/why-buenas-noches-when-its-only-one-night
Look at the 3rd reply down which has a section highlighted in yellow. It starts with "The origin of the plural forms as a way of greeting has to be searched in the past." - I think that can help answer your question.
I almost got it right...I wrote: Hola. Buenos dias. I lost points for the period instead of using a comma...Meh...
When do you use buenas and buenos dias? I got two questions wrong becuase i do not understand the difference.