"Hola, buenos días."
Translation:Hello, good morning.
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Hola Amigo motoons: In Spanish the modifying word (the adjective) must agree with the noun it is modifying in number and gender. So a feminine noun must have a feminine modifier and a masculine noun must have a masculine modifier. A singular word must have a singular modifier and a plural noun must have a plural modifier. So...... "días" is a masculine, plural word and therefore must have a masculine, plural modifier, "buenos". "Noches" and "tardes" are feminine, plural words and therefore must have feminine, plural modifiers, "buenas". Ciao.
The rule of thumb where a word ending in "o" is masculine and a word ending in "a" is feminine mostly works, except when it doesn't! Yes, indeed counter-intuitive.
I'll try to answer your question to the best of my ability, but anyone else feel free to chime in:
you can say "el lindo dia" (the beautiful day) in which case "lindo" gets the "o" ending because it's used with a masculine word (dia)
this is also the case if you say "el dia es muy lindo" (the day is very beautiful) Lindo still gets the "o" ending because although it is not "next to" the word dia, it is still referring to it and therefore gets the masculine "o" ending.
When you say "la linda mujer" (the beautiful woman) or "la mujer es muy linda" (the woman is very beautiful) it gets the "a" ending because it's being used with a feminine word.
Hope that answers your question!
Hola Lisagnipura, I will answer to you here because I cannot reply to your comment. I am talking of Spanish grammar, where phrasal verbs do not exist as they do in English. In Spanish, the rule of gender concordance must be applied at all times. With 'particle' I mean any of the grammar elements building a sentence (nouns, verbs, conjunctions, prepositions, ...). Zbuddhaha wanted to know if adjectives belong to the group of variable elements depending on the gender (and number) of the noun being referred to. The answer is yes (except for those who are irregular and do not manifest change, such as 'azul', coche azul, bolsa azul). Verbs, or adverbs, do not belong to that group.
What's up with the accents? I don't understand them anymore. In high school, I was an advanced Spanish speaker, having taken classes my whole life. That was well over a decade ago. I can't remember the rules regarding it, and I'm warned about them pretty frequently in this app. Anyone care to reeducate me???
accents indicate where to stress a word when speaking. Without an accented letter a word would follow the usual linguistic rules of Spanish regarding stress placement. You need to pay attention to accents because without accents some words can be completely different. For example Sí = yes, Si = if. Cómo = how, Como = as/like, Qué = what, Que = that. Etc.
The reason is that "goodnight" has become one word in English, while "good" and "night" remain separate words in other contexts. This is something that can happen over a long period of time. Another example of the phenomenon is "tomorrow", which used to be "to morrow".
Linguistic morphism. Some English speaking cultures write certain phrases phonetically instead of their proper form. In theory, good morning would evolve the same way - except the double consonants 'd' and 'm' discourage English speakers from conjoining them, unlike 'd' and 'n' - which both roll off the tongue specifically. You are right in that 'goodnight' is not technically correct, though it is accepted as such.
!Hola! goldilocks 101: "Buenos días" is plural because it has the consonant “s” You obviously can say in Spanish “buen día”, when referring to it as a day, one says “‘un día”. The day: “el dia” When forming the plural one must say: “Buenos días”, some more plurals: “unos días”, and “los días”, etcétera.
I wish I had a better answer for you, but I think it's just a "thing" - the way you might say "Just a minute" when someone asks you for help. Is it exactly 60 seconds that you are going to keep them waiting? Definitely not. But still, we say it... I believe it's the same with "buenos dias"
On another note, you got me curious, so I just searched and found this: http://spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/513/why-buenas-noches-when-its-only-one-night
Look at the 3rd reply down which has a section highlighted in yellow. It starts with "The origin of the plural forms as a way of greeting has to be searched in the past." - I think that can help answer your question.
Adjectives match the nouns. Use Buenos with plural masculine and Buenas with plural feminine. There is an 80/20 rule in Spanish. Nouns ending with A are 80% likely to be feminine and nouns ending in O are 80% likely to be masculine. Día is a 20% exception, a masculine noun with an A ending.
Partícula is not limited to science. A 'partícula gramatical' can be informally used to refer to words or part of words with some specific meaning. For instance, I may say that japanese tends to end a question with an interrogative particle (-ka) as in kohi wa ikuradesuka?
OK DUDEs my original question had nothing to do with night, day, morning, or afternoon. What is the difference between buenOs and buenAs? When I see buenos dia it is spelled with an O, when I see buenas tarde it is spelled with an A. Google Translate says both spelling means "Good" Just wanted to know where the technicality is,..... not a big deal, .....but I am curious