IN the audio, the MI is almost completely in-audible. Is that they way it would be said, or is it a problem with tts?
Yeah, that's very common. Turkish speakers usually drop their voice towards the end. So the endings are not always clearly heard.
Yes, if you all had not noted it, I would not have heard it. Now, yes, it is there. However, is this really a distinct word, or is it a kind of "sort of" word, like the contraction "n't" in English? By this I mean, could a couple of people actually carry on a brief exchange of "Mi?", "Musun?" . . .
It almost looks like "Do WE have a reservation?" for me but would that be "Rezervasyonuz var mı?"
Nope, that would be "reservasyonumuz var mı" :) You are confusing the personal ending and the possessive ending.
It is singular. The only time you will see an English plural with a Turkish singular is if it is a general direct object.
because the subject is "rezervasyon" so you cannot add second person plural suffix to "var"
On all the -syon load words (which I assume come from Romance languages, mainly French), where does the accent go? In Romance languages it would be on the -syon, but what about Turkish?
If it's in the nominative, the stress is in "-yon". If it has received other suffixes, both -yon and the final suffix is stressed: rezervasyónlár, rezervasyónsuzlúk, rezervasyónlarımızdakilerdén etc.
Also, what does that last word mean? That's a lot of case endings!
"From the ones that are in our reservations". I just made it up to show an extreme case.
By the way, in loan words, the original stress is usually conserved: lokánta, lámba, palyáço, dráma, sinéma, kóro, Atína, Róma etc.
Also, if an already existing Turkish word is used as a surname, location (village, city) etc, the stress is usually shifted to the previous syllable. For example, "aydın" (intellectual) is stressed on -dın: aydín. But the city of Aydın is stressed on the first syllable: Áydın. Another example is the word yıldız (star), stressed on the final syllable. But the district I'm living in, in Ankara, is pronounced YILdız.
Anyways, these are some of the peculiarities of Turkish.
So tell me if I have this correct:
Words in Turkish (except loanwords) are generally stressed on the first syllable, unless they have a case ending, in which case the ending gets the stress. And if there are multiple endings, the final ending gets the stress.
Words in Turkish are stressed on the final syllable. If the word receives additional endings (except for a couple of suffixes), then the stress shifts to the final suffix, hence making the new word stressed on the final syllable again. Ex: arabá, arabalár, arabalarín, arabalarındán.
Loan words keep their original stress as the secondary stress, keeping the final ending as the main stress.
It's wrong in English because that way you wont have an auxiliary verb to form the question. As you see "have" is the main verb not an auxiliary verb,
And for ex: I love you. // Do you love me? ---
I have the reservation. // Do you have the reservation?
If we translate "do you have a television?" to "televizyonun var mı?", what does the "u' after "Reservasyon" do in "Rezervasyonunuz var mı?" and why it was not added after "televizyon" in the first sentence!
Benim Televizyonum Bizim Televizyonumuz Senin Televizyonun Sizin Televizyonunuz Onun Televizyonu