It could be "no se ha puesto mi maestra" but there seem to be lots of different ways to say "become" in Spanish, like "volverse" and "ponerse" not sure exactly which would be used here.
"ha" is the 3rd person singular conjugation of the helping verb "haber"
She HAS been - ella HA sido
Can somebody expalin if this correct? Ella no ha sida mi maestra (sida because ella is feminine). Or there is no word such as sida.
The conjugated verbs are fixed and do not matched gender. So it would be "sido" regardless if the person is male or female.
It appears that "sida" is Spanish for AIDS.
To clarify JuevesHuevos' comment further, the -ido ending is the past participle, equivalent to the English -ed for Spanish verbs ending in -er/-ir (like ser).
Of course, in English "to be" is highly irregular: instead of "has/had beed" we'd say "has/had been" instead.
Here's a link which may also help: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/100044/past-participles#.VVebpJMUJNY
In French to Spanish "She has not been my mistress" would be the correct answer, as I discovered the hard way. Out of interest I tried it here and was marked wrong.
"She has not been my mistress" usually means "She has not been my paramour"-- "Ella no ha sido mi amante"
You just have to think of when it would be used. Maybe youre in a class, and the syllabus says Mrs Smith is the teacher, but every class so far has been taught by a substitute. If someone asks if you have class with Mrs Smith, you might reply "Si, pero ella no ha sido mi maestra."
I should have known that! How silly of me. Still have a long way to go. Thanks much, have a lingot.
I think it should be an acceptable translation. Simply saying "She has not been my teacher" without adding anything else sounds awkward to this English-speaking Wolf :)
I'm a bit lost in translation... When would you prefer this form to "she wasn't my teacher"?
In English, "she wasn't my teacher" means that she was not my teacher at some time in the past, usually referring to a particular time or period of time. "she has not been my teacher" means that she was not my teacher for a period in the past extending up to the present, even if it is a completed action that is qualified in some way e.g. she has not been my teacher for two years now. The first is simple past tense or imperfect tense according to the context, and the second is present perfect tense. In Romance languages the present perfect can be used for completed past actions which do not necessarily extend to the present in the way that would be necessary in English, particularly in conversation. However I do not know enough about Spanish yet to say whether this could apply here.
When she will be your teacher or there is the possibility that she may be in future. Or possibly when someone believes that she was and asks you about her.
The 'a' is for when the object of a sentence is a person (or sometimes an animal). Whenever you have a verb of "being," the part after the verb isn't actually an object because it refers to the subject (e.g. David is a doctor. David = doctor). In other languages, this is called a predicate nominative (not sure if it is in Spanish).
Since it refers to the same person, you don't need to use 'a' to clarify who is the subject and who is the object.
For anyone wondering: ____ -AR verbs: | 1st Person| 2nd Person| 1.Remove the -AR (i.e. buscar--> busc) |__| 2.Add "ado" (i.e. busc--> buscado) | He | Hemos | -ER or -IR verbs: | Has | Habéis | 1. Remover the -ER or -IR (venir --> ven) | Ha | Han | 2. Add "ido" to the end of the verb (i.e. venido) _____
¡¡¡Has venido hasta aqui!!!! (Sorry I just really wanted to write that)
Agreed, it sounds odd even in English, but you could say "she's become my guitar teacher".. "se ha vuelto mi maestra", right?