"Ben kahveyi içerim."

Translation:I drink the coffee.

April 16, 2015

This discussion is locked.


Why does 'kahve' change to 'kahveyi' in this instance?


i drink coffee:kahve içerim i drink the coffee:kahveyi içerim

<pre>Technically the 'kahve' words are direct objects so they were both supposed to </pre>

in accusative case but in Turkish you only use accusative marker to show the definite direct object. In first sentence ''kahve'' was an indefinite object so it doesn't get an accusative case marker.


I think he was asking because of the poor inteligent pronounciation. The woman says "kahve" very clearly instead of "kahveyi". I listened "Kahve" and put: "Ben kahve içerim" and it turns out that she was talking "kahveyi". But dang...it's really really hard to listen the "-yi" here!


That is because kahveyi ends the same as icerim begins.


I wanted to ask that if we say it in english i drink coffee and i drink the coffee both are the same so what difference does the accusative make like does it chamge the meaning or something


I'd like to know why kahve changes to kahveyi for accusative, but çorba changes to çorbayı. When does the suffix end with i and when with ı?


that's the most important rule in Turkish, vowel harmony :) It is explained in the tips and notes of this lesson (when you click on the skill, it is under the list of lessons), and also here: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/9041808


This is sooo hard to discern on the audio! It sounds almost exactly like a non-accusative case. I guess I'm in trouble when I go to Turkey :(


I suppose that "the coffee" is just an example for understanding Turkish, because in fact it should be "some coffee" or "a cup of coffee" as I know :/


What's the difference between kahve-yi and pasta-yı i don't know when to use the "i" and when to use the "ı"..


THE coffee, THE water, THE sugar. It's impossible even just to read it. Correct, please. Thanks.

Learn Turkish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.