Knowing that in English there's the two versions
"I don't have (any) tea."
"I have no tea."
and keeping in mind that German has not:
"Ich habe keinen Tee."
*"Ich habe nicht Tee." (Although you could indeed say "Tee habe ich nicht"),
do both of the two Swedish versions work as well? If so, is any of them preferred?
"Jag har inte te." "Jag har inget te."
inget is essentially a contraction of inte något, which means "not any", so while "I do not have tea" corresponds well to the factual context of the sentence, it's not a direct translation.
- I do not have tea = Jag har inte te
- I do not have any tea = Jag har inget te or Jag har inte något te