Perhaps its just my computer's bad sound quality, but I find it impossible to distinguish some of the articles and verb endings in her speech, and I've taken Italian for awhile with a native Italian speaker :( Does anyone else have this problem?
Does anyone know why there isn't an article for sugar? I thought an article was always attached...?
I believe "mangio" has the "Io" implied. It is the same as in Spanish, no articles are used when they are implied in the verb.
In other words, mangia can be used for lui, lei and tu the same way, however mangio can only be used for Io
io mangio, tu mangi, lui/lei/Lei mangia...noi mangiamo, voi mangiate, loro mangiano
(I think the question was not about the subject "I", but the article that would accompany "sugar". That is, "the" ["the sugar"].)
Usually there is. I guess they left it off to sound more native? Either that or they're teaching it later in the course. The article is "LO".
probably the same as in english i eat apple is wrong in english whereas i eat sugar is correct in english
I think it's most likely that it's the same concept in English, you would only use the article if you're specifying between foods, which of them you eat as opposed to the ones someone else eats, maybe?
Yeah I'm not overly fond of a basic language course teaching both with and without articles. I get that a native speaker (or at least, someone who's not an absolute beginner), might not use them, but... it's not super helpful for me as a beginner.
It's just like in English, where saying "I ate the sugar" doesn't mean the same thing as "I ate sugar". I think the presence or absence of articles isn't arbitrary-- or at least, I hope not :)
Because the subject is implicitly part of the conjugation of the verb. "Mangio" is only used for a first person singular subject. Thus the "io" is superfluous and can safely be omitted.
Because whenever a verb's conjugation makes clear who the subject is, the pronoun can (and, usually should) be omitted. That's true in Italian and also in many other languages with similar conjugation rules.
Having "Io" won't make it strictly wrong, but it will sometimes sound a little odd.
What is the difference between, "mangia" "mangio" and "mangi"
Is mangia feminine, mangio masculine, and mangi inanimate?
If you were using the definite article it would be "lo zucchero". Masculine singular nouns that begin wtih certain unusual letters ("z", "ps", "gn", "y", "sc", "pn") take "lo".
In English, "I am doING" something, where you pair "to be" or "to have" with the gerund form of a verb, is called the present progressive tense. There is an analogous tense in Italian, where you pair the present indicative conjugation of "stare" with the gerund form, which in this case would be "mangiando", thus: Sto mangiando. Generally, it's used much much more in English than it is in Italian. For this reason, I think it's a bad habit to get into to mentally translate the italian presente indicativo into the english present progressive. So while "I am eating sugar" carries the same English meaning, you shouldn't translate it that way. "I eat sugar" is the correct translation.
I understand that Italian has a present progressive, but would an Italian speaker use it consistently, reserving the indicative for the equivalent form in English? My impression is that, idiomatically, Italians often use 'mangio' in this progressive sense, transitively or intransitively, as the French commonly do. Perhaps this isn't so ... but,if it is, I want to be aware of it, since the difference in intention between 'I am eating sugar' and 'I eat sugar' is quite significant.
(American English speaker) Yes, in English we can say "I am eating sugar." But the meaning is a little different. "I eat sugar" means I sometimes eat sugar. "I am eating sugar" means I am eating sugar right now.