I think it's better think about "manque" as meaning "to give someone a feeling of longing". So vous me manquez makes sense because its saying "you give me a feeling of longing".
Or maybe we should make up the English word "Mank" to mean the same thing- Like "You know you mankin' the hell outta me girl!"
It is a strange and profound semantic question: who the subject responsible for the feeling in me when I miss someone or someone 'manks' me? Am I responsible, or are they? It's subjective. To an English speaker, of course it is I who is doing the missing. But as the blues songwriters know, it is for some reason more potent to say that the feeling is due to or caused by the person who is missed, and it is that way of looking at it which the French verb captures.
Wow, this makes perfect sense to me. Now I get the sense manquer is using here, which until now had me very confused.
Ok, so the following will probably only be useful to you if you are fluent in Spanish. Otherwise, skip it.
All of a sudden I realized that manquer, in the sense of "to lack" is similar to the Spanish verb "hacer falta" or "faltar", which means to miss (a person or thing). So if I translate "tu me manques" into Spanish as "tú me haces falta", the mystery and backwards feeling is gone. If I now translate "tú me haces falta" or better yet “tú me faltas” back to English I get "you are missing from me". Which is the sentence you posted. You are a sweetheart. :)
Also, the word “manquer” must have the same origin as “manco”, which in Spanish is a person who lacks a limb.
Now I'll try to answer your question. "In other words, from where does the "from" come? Is it implied?"
"From" comes from "me" in "tu ME manques".
The word "miss" here is being used in the sense of "to lack". As if you are a body part of mine, and now that you are gone I lack (miss) that part. The part is missing FROM me.
Sorry if that doesn't make sense to you and also sorry that I got so excited.
I think of « manquer » as "to miss like an arrow misses the target" and remember that in French to say that someone has missed you in this way idiomatically means that you long for them.
This has worked best for me since « manquer » can be used for phrases like "missed the bus" and "missed my opportunity".
I strive to hold as many layers of meaning for French words as for words in my native tongue: etymological meanings, historical meanings, literal meanings, colloquial meanings, figurative meanings. Besides being a lot of fun, it sure helps to learn related languages like French and English!
I miss you = I am lacking your presence
- subject: I; object: you
Now, switch subject and object (because the French verb reverses them)
tu me manques (lit. tu manques à moi) if you talk to someone close to you
vous me manquez (lit. vous manquez à moi) if you talk to someone you don't know well or more certainly to several people.
- subject: tu/vous; indirect object: me (= à moi)
Conjugation of verb manquer in indicative present: je manque, tu manques, il/elle/on manque, nous manquons, vous manquez, ils/elles manquent.
This is confusing, but the answer is correct. Manquer is a strange verb, where the Object and Subject are reversed from how they are in English. Manquer = to be missed by. So Vous me manquez = You are missed by me.
No its mean SHE I MISS, i miss her is Elle me manque.
Practice that, forget who you miss, just say *i miss= je manque, you miss=te manques, he miss= lui manque, we miss= nous manque They miss= leur manque
Now, add the person you miss. Instead of putting this person after the verb missing as in english, put it first for french.
ELLE me manque I miss HER
ELLE te manques You miss her
ELLE lui manque He miss her
ELLE Nous manque We miss her
ELLE vous manque You miss her
ELLE leur manque They miss her
See, its the same. But in french the person you miss come first, because you really miss her! So she has to come before everything else! (A trick to remerber it ;) )
When words are underlined for hovering (or touching on the apps) it will give you the translations and sometimes it adds an explain at the bottom of that list to explain some of the rules of French and the sentence in particular... Unfortunately the explain of this one is of no help for what looks like "You miss me" as opposed to "I miss you".
Sometimes, there is nothing to explain, except that languages are fickle and you cannot expect word for word translations to work every time (otherwise, you would only need to learn vocabulary).
In this instance, it just happens that "to miss/manquer" are not constructed the same way but need to switch subject and object from one language to the other. Just something to remember.
And when you think you understand... booom you get the sentence "Tu manques un bon repas", which means you miss a good meal... and you're back to square one... :( I kinda understand it though... If you were scheduled to get in a car and you missed it, you'd say "Je manque ma voiture", right?
I disagree about the French making a language so difficult just so we will not learn it.......On the contrary-I believe the French say "Love me-love my mother tongue." It shows you care for them if you will go all that way to make the effort. The French Know they have something very special going here and they are not soon going to relinquish it -if they have anything to say about it. (This is how I see it anyway.)
My remark was tongue in cheek, I just enjoy venting a little when I encounter a particularly difficult section. Just when I feel I have semi-mastered verb construction a spanner is thrown in the works that readjusts my thinking. I still maintain that French is a challenging language to master but so are many others yet I am enjoying the battle. By the way, nice comment.
Hahaha! Someone told me that, some hundred of years before, rich and nobles wanted to be supoerior to the others so they add more grammar to their french .. then lower people began to talk like them so they add more vocabular and grammar again to shiw how rich they are, and thats the french we have today! Haha, didnt found any research bout that but its funny isnt it!
"You are missed by me" is grammatically correct and understandable, but it's hardly current English.
"I miss you" on the other hand is what a native English speaker would use in the exact circumstances in which a native French speaker would use "Vous me manquez". They are in other words the equivalent phrases for each other.
No. See the link posted earlier by @mikeybarnes:
As I posted previously, I seriously thought about the conventional English language take on the phrase. But I decided to stick with the direct translation because in addition to being grammatical and understandable it keeps me focused on what the phrase actually means. This might be helpful in the future when the English analogue is not so evident.
Originally, I was responding to someone else who posted about using the translation. I am not complaining about Duo taking a heart. I'm merely noting that there is nothing wrong with the direct French to English translation.
Of course most people, less obsessed with being linear, will simply write I miss you.
I think the confusion is caused by the fact that this is in the passive voice. The drop-down menu for 'manquer''s meaning doesn't help: it lists 'miss' instead of 'to be missing'. In the passive voice the object becomes the subject and the subject becomes the object. Example: Active Voice in English...I finish the work. Passive Voice...The work is finished by me. The literal meaning of the sentence is 'You are missed (by) me', but since that is awkward in English, we use the active voice. "I miss you". someone correct me if I'm wrong.
Is there an important distinction between "manquer à" and just "manquer"? That is to say, are "Je vous manque" and "Je manque à vous" the same thing?
This was a bit confusing to me because I had it both ways in the exercises and wrongly supposed that this exercise represented a different meaning, and not just a different construction.
"Je manque à vous" is not a correct structure because the pronoun (indirect object) has to be placed before the verb.
If it were not a pronoun, you could only have "je manque à mes enfants" (my children miss me), which is the same notion as "je vous manque" (you miss me)
In other words, whether or not you actually SEE the preposition "à", the meaning is the same.
Just one twist of mind: you have to assume that "I miss you" is reversed in French: "tu me manques".
Now, "you" can be either the familiar singular "tu" or the polite singular "vous" or the plural "vous".
Therefore, "I miss you" can translate to:
tu me manques
vous me manquez (one person)
vous me manquez (several persons)
As a portuguese speaker, I can tell you I struggled a little with the verb "miss" as I was learning English, because it has no literal translation. So, my advice is: don't try to translate "manquer" literally to english meanings. As it has many different contexts in which it can be used, it will only make its learning more difficult to English speakers.
For the same reason as you cannot say "you miss I", "je" is used exclusively when it is the unique subject of the verb.
When it is an object, "je" changes to "me" (direct object or indirect object with verbs constructed with preposition à):
I miss you = vous me manquez
you miss me = je vous manque
"je" changes to "moi" in other cases:
she and I went for a walk = elle et moi sommes allés nous promener
he came with me = il est venu avec moi
My confusion comes from the fact that "Vous me manquez" means "I miss you", but "Tu manques un bon repas" means "You miss a good meal", according to the answers. Is "manquer" only the switched polarity of "to miss" in English when dealing with two people? Also, does it only require the "à" when not using a pronoun?
Your confusion comes from the fact that "manquer" has two constructions:
- with a direct object : manquer le train
- with an indirect object : manquer à quelqu'un
When "train" or "quelqu'un" is represented by a pronoun, the rules are:
- tu manques le train = tu le manques, with "le" as the direct object form of "il" (it)
- tu me manques = tu manques à moi, but in this case, the indirect object is also placed in front of the verb = tu me manques, with "me" as the indirect object form of "à+je" (to me)
In French, « manquer » is used to mean "to miss" as an arrow misses the mark, not "to miss" as in to long for someone/something. So in French, when you long for someone, it is because they have "missed" meeting you. (Thanks to Sitesurf for clarifications.)
But it's used differently in English, as you know, so you have to change the structure of the sentence in translation in order to preserve the meaning. Does that make sense?
In any case, this difficulty is a common one for native English speakers and has been addressed in comments already. A quick look there can save you some time in the future, and prevents duplicate questions.
Yes, in French, manquer + direct object means "to fail to meet/catch/see...":
- you miss the bus: "tu manques le bus";
- you miss an opportunity: "tu manques une occasion/opportunité".
Then the meaning is that you failed catching the thing in question. It also works with people:
- you missed him at the station: "tu l'as manqué à la gare", because you were late.
Only when the object is longed for does the verb change its construction to an indirect object:
- he misses his country: "son pays lui manque" ("lui" is indirect object = à+il)
"vous me le manquez" has "me" meaning "for/to me".
"manquer quelque chose" and "manquer à quelqu'un" are quite different in meaning:
- j'ai manqué (raté) l'école = I missed school (= I did not go to school)
- mon pays m'a manqué = I missed my country (= I longed for my country)
- j'ai manqué (raté) mon examen = I failed my exam
I do know that technically english is a Mixed language with Latin+french+greek as major players in our vocabulary, But saying english is half latin is not Accurate. English is a word Thief... not Grammar. English doesnt use Any Latin Grammar so you shouldnt give latin so much credit.
The last time english had any of the grammatical beauty you see in Latin was before the 13th century . you can say something similar for french aswell. french and english are very analytic and are now as different from OE Latin as we are from homo erectus. Both English and French evovled very differently devoloping their own rules of conveying meaning in their grammar, that being said, Its a fact that there are key aspects of french grammar is the reverse of ours And Vice Versa. Thats not necessarily bad thing, it will also be impossible to ignore if your learning it. so instead of taking offence consider the fact that everyone says that about english... cos i know they do :)