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  5. "Kitaplar sizde."

"Kitaplar sizde."

Translation:You have the books.

April 19, 2015



why can this not be 'you have books' and if it's The Books, why is it not 'kitaplari' (i know that's not the right letter at the end)


Have read that, and I'm not really any clearer :)

No worries.


just try to "accept" what you read :) "var" is not a verb, it just requires its own sentence construction.

it is also not correct to assume there should be an accusative wherever you see a "the". This is only true, if a verb can get the accusative case. For such a verb, an object with "the" is a definite object and will get the accusative ending, and an object without it will be an indefinite object and won't get it.

Although explained in the link, again, you wouldn't say "you have the books" when you want to say they own them, would you? It indicates location, that's why Turkish uses the locative case. In this case "kitaplar" is the subject. Subjects CAN NEVER be in the accusative/dative/locative/ablative.

"Kitapları sizde" would therefore imply that "kitapları" is possessive; "His/Her/Their/Its books are with you" // "You have his/her/their/its books"



I think I'm clearer on why it doesn't use the accusative. Part of my problem is actually my English (and understanding of subjects/objects etc). Not good considering it's my first language :)

My other problem is I've asked so many questions, and the comments feeds don't tell you which lesson they relate to, so I can't remember what I was supposed to be learning with this one :)

So, I get why no accusative, however, why can it not be I have books? Is that because that would be Benim Kitaplarim var? (with the right letters).


yes, "I have books" is "Benim kitaplarım var". Try to take notes of all these explanations so you don't forget them :) You can for example use evernote.


I have been using Evernote to keep the Notes & Tips, and go back every now and then. Also, having got to level 6, I'm going back to redo some of the lessons, as I realise I have no idea about some of it :) It's getting there.


it's not in the accusative because it's not the direct object of any verb here.


Great explanation Selcen


I didn't really understand why "kitaplar" was the subject, I thought it would be the direct object.

What made more sense to me was that perhaps the more direct translation would be something like "the books are with you", which would mean that "you have the books". That way "kitaplar" is the subject. Am I correct?


How would you say, "The books are yours"?


"Kitaplar senin/sizin" OR "Kitaplar sana/size ait".


What is the difference between sizde and sende?


Sende = for informal, single you

Sizde = for polite/formal/plural you


Would it be also correct to say "the books belong to you"?


No, in Duo's sentence there is no implication of ownership- they could be anyone's books and you just happen to have them at the moment. If we wanted to express ownership, there are a few ways (I will use "sen", but they all work with "siz" as well):

  • The books belong to you = Kitaplar sana ait.
  • The books are yours = Kitaplar senin.
  • You own the books = Kitaplara sen sahipsin.
  • You have your books = Kitapların sende.


"Kitaplar sizde." Translation: You have the books.


The books are with you. Correct other English answer accepted by Duo.

No report facility option available to submit other correct English answer.


the ''da'' is locative,about a place,but why is this examples talking about possessions?


This is another usage of "dA" I believe


Why "the books are yours" is not accepted?


why not "i have books"



why not "I have books." Kitaplarım var.


I like "The books are with you".

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