Yes, that is because it will be pronounced that way if two vowels meet. It would be written bev'acqua, which should be a valid answer.
no, that would not be correct. This kind of contraction is only acceptable in poetry for metric reasons.
I'm assuming it is like you're telling someone your drinking a specific water when you say, "Bevo l'acqua." I drink the water. So, saying "I drink water" is more general. Meaning, I just drink water so you'll just say, "Bevo acqua."
Yes. Because every person has a different conjugation. (Io) bevo, (tu) bevi, (lei/lui) beve. It's implicit.
Why is an article not used here? I'm just beginning so I don't know much at all, but I had just assumed that you needed a 'un, una, il, le' before every noun. I'm guessing from this that that is not true?
but english you can say "I drink water" is the same (Io) bevo acqua don't need of un una
You say "bevo l'acqua" when you're drinking a specific water (I drink THE water), while "bevo acqua" is used when you want to say that you drink any water (I drink water).
It could be 'bevo l`acqua'. At all it's the same idea.
bevo l'acqua = I drink the water bevo acqua = I drink water
I heard 'Bev acqua' because that's what I heard. However when I said that, I kept getting it wrong, it's only when I said 'Bevo acqua' did I get it correct. How do the Italians say it though?
if ai héd ciu ráit inglisc de uei icialiens hiar ic, dis iz hao ic ud luk laik (If I had to write English the way Italians hear it, this is how it would look like) :-)