"I know, it is snowing."
Translation:Biliyorum, kar yağıyor.
Doesn't this contradict the tip in the gerunds lesson that Turkish sentences only contain one verb. If so should that tip read "Turkish clauses only contain one verb" or "Turkish phrases only contain one verb"?
Yikes. I'd junk that 'tip' entirely. There's a way to fit two verbs that are sequentially related in time into the same clause using a special ending we haven't gotten to yet.
"Kitap buldum VE onu okudum.": I found a book AND I read it. The word 've' splits the sentence into two clauses. But:
"Kitap bulup okudum." I found and then read a book. One clause, two verbs.
Perhaps "Turkish clauses only contain one conjugated or finite verb" is correct - as for other languages such as English and German.
If there are multiple verbs, then the others are in some form that is not inflected for person, such as "bulup" (okudum), "çalışırken" (o çıktı), "öğrenmek" (istiyorum), "yemeyi" (seviyorum), ....
Doesn't this make, "I know" into the present-continous conjugation, meaning literally, "I am knowing?" Or am I wrong?
Literally, yes, but we don't say that in English.
There are some verbs that don't really form a present continuous, such as "I see, I know, I have (in the sense of possess)". You may hear "I am having a book" or "I am not knowing that" from someone from India, but it's not standard UK or US English.
If you mean "yağıyormuş", you can't. It's not the same meaning.
Kar yağıyormuş would mean: "I've just been informed that it's snowing."
Enjoy a holiday in Turkey and take home a Turkish keyboard as a cheap souvenir.
Or even cheaper, add a Turkish keyboard in your keyboard's settings. Then you can easily switch between them.
What is the difference between "anladım, kar yağıyor " and "biliyorum, kar yağıyor "