1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Spanish
  4. >
  5. "Me había quedado sin pan."

"Me había quedado sin pan."

Translation:I had run out of bread.

December 22, 2012



You just have to learn the expression "quedarse sin" to run out of something. http://www.wordreference.com/esend/quedarse%20(sin)


I disagree. Yes "I had run out of bread" is one possible answer, but not the only correct one. Even duolingo recognizes and lists as one of its possible answers " I had been without bread". I believe that "Se me habia acabado el pan" is a more literal translation for "I had run out of bread".

How would you translate: "Los ladrones me robaron y me habia quedado sin un centavo"? It certainly does not say that I ran out of money. The sentence I just gave would be " The thieves robbed me and I had been left without one cent" . Do you agree?

Likewise my opinion is that "me habia quedado sin pan" could also mean "I had been left without bread".

What if you were to add "me habia quedado sin pan por dos semanas"? Would you translate that as "I had run out of bread for two weeks" or "I was without bread" or "I remained without bread" for two weeks. I would choose the later two. One more example: "Los roedores comieron toda nuestra comida. Hasta que nos quedamos sin una rebanada de pan".


Estoy de acuerdo con tus propuestas, son utilizadas y no suenan extrañas, al menos en España.

However, las propuestas de Mavry, perhaps they are most used


Duolingo doesn't recognise "i had been without bread"




Do you have a list of common expressions like this?


Which unfortunately is not among this extensive list of quedar expressions previously offered (at least not enough to understand "run out of"): http://www.elearnspanishlanguage.com/vocabulary/expressions/ex-quedar.html


Excellent. Duo accepted "I had been without bread," but that makes more sense.


thanks, so it's more like a phrase to memorize.

I'd provided this answer which was rejected: "I had stayed without bread", which is nonsense logically but literally, could mean that I'm either allergic to gluten or there's no panaderia cerca de aqui.


Could it be he left me without bread? Había is first and third person?


how do you tell that it isn't "he had left me without bread"


You know it by being familiar with the expression "quedarse sin," which means to run out of something.


Hola Fluent2B dices que "quedarse sin" quiere decir "run out of something" entonces como traducirías la siguiente oración?... "Despues de comprar los regalos me quedé sin un centavo". Creo que la mejor traducción sería "After buying the gifts I was left without one cent (penny)" not "After buying the gifts I ran out of cents (pennies)". En mi opiñion la traducción adecuada de español a ingles de la expresión "quedarse sin" puede variar y depende del contexto.


are you a native speaker


You have cut through a thicket of unnecessary and pointless discussion with this one short thought. Although English is full of them, idioms are hard for some people to understand. Have a lingot.


At first I thought it was she had left me without bread as well. Then I recalled having seen this before and came up with the correct answer. This is why repetition is good!


Shouldn´t we be learning the ¨general¨ meaning of a word before advanced expressions? There is no hovered example that even suggests that is what it means.


Yep. It didnt even provide a hint at the word 'run'....?


Honestly, "Quedado" seems to mean whatever you want it to.


why 'me' shouldn't it be 'yo'?


The only example I can think of which is similar is back on a previous lesson, where the sentence was "él se queda en el hotel" – "he (himself) stays in the hotel".. I guess it must be the same here, "I (myself) had run out of bread", because it is I who has run out of something, that 'something' being the bread. That's my guess anyway.


There are a few things going on in this sentence, which is why it is such a source of confusion. I think they've all been addressed somewhere in this discussion, but I'll summarise here.

Firstly the verb being used is the pronominal form of "Quedar" which is "Quedarse." In this case the verb is referring to "I" so it becomes "Quedarme."

"Quedarme" has a primary meaning of "I stay/remain." When combined with "sin" this gives us something like "I remain without," which takes a slightly idiomatic shift to give us "I run out."

The use of "había" followed by the past participle form "quedado" tells us the sentence is past perfect, so "I run out" becomes "I had run out," provided "quedar" remains the pronominal "quedarme."

However, while "me" can be attached to the end of the infinitive form of "quedar," it must precede the past participle form "quedado," and as the past perfect conjugation cannot be split, it must also precede "había."

All this gives us: "Me había quedado sin"="I had run out."


That was a perfect explanation, thank you.


Queda and quedarse are of course related, but quedarse is what they call a reflexive verb that refers back to the subject of the verb, and it is in the infinitive form. To conjugate a reflexive verb in other than the infinitive form, you will think of it as combinations of quedar and the pronoun of the person being reflected back to, such as me, te, se, nos, os, and se again. In the sentence, "Me había quedado sin pan," the 'me quedado' part is the reflexive conjugation and the 'había' is stuck in between 'me' and 'quedado' to keep the verb sense together as 'había quedado.' If the non-reflexive verb 'quedar' means, among other things, to leave something or to be located somewhere (perhaps meaning 'left there' in the sense of being located there), then the reflexive verb 'quedarse' means that the subject of the sentence itself is left there or located there. The reflexive "Me quedo allí" could mean that 'I am located there.' Or, "Mi oficina se queda allí," could mean that 'My office is located there.' So, when I first tackled the sentence of "Me había quedado sin pan," I was a bit lost. The direct 'I had located [or was located] without bread' was too nonsensical to try. The compromise of 'I was left without bread,' made some sense, but the reflexive form seems wrong there since someone else would have left me there. I ran with it and was wrong. The meaning of 'I had run out of bread,' was simply unavailable to me.


"I had been left without bread." given the okay as of 18/2/2017 and apparently on 16 March 2014.

(The issue would more obviously be "had" on your primary attempt of "I was left without bread")


Agreed! I would never know to use "me" if asked to translate from the English.


I sometimes think that if you learn all the meanings of Quedar and Llevar you can say pretty much anything in Spanish! ;o)


"he had left me without bread" was marked wrong. Could it be correct?


I think you'd need to use "dejar sin" instead of "quedar sin" for that, and including the subject pronoun would reduce ambiguity. Perhaps: El me había dejado sin pan. A native speaker would need to confirm.


i got the prompt for starting sentence with "i" but it wasn't accepted..... c'est la vie.


"He had left me without bread" would be "El me habia dejado sin pan". But in my opinion to "I was left without bread" is a valid translation for "Me habia quedado sin pan". To double check I just put "I was left without bread in the SpanishDict Online Translator and it gave me "me quede sin pan". Quedarse sin algo does not necessarily mean that you ran out of it. You can check for yourself: http://www.spanishdict.com


I was remembering a very similar expression to this, "Me había quedado sin arroz" to have been the Spanish sentence offered, with an English translation of "I was left without rice". Am I remembering the Spanish correctly? If so, how can this sentence then not translate as "I was left without bread", as Duolingo asserts (since they counted this wrong for me)?


You remember the rice incident correctly in Spanish, but it was "had been left without" in translation. And "I had been left without bread" was actually accepted today (16 March 2014).


I agree! I have the same problem and cannot understand why "I was left without bread" is incorrect.


In a roundabout sense, I think the "me," which is part of a reflexive expression, means it was your own fault, you did it to yourself. I left MYSELF without bread. "I was left without bread" implies that someone else was responsible for you not having bread. The difference between you or your partner forgetting to pick up bread on the way home.


De acuerdo. Eso debe ser aceptado como una de las respuestas.


I hate the verb "quedar". "I had been without bread" was my guess though.


Well, it's a plain vanilla AR verb. I only dislike the irregular ones.


I'm with rocko. Dejar also bugs the crap out of me because it can mean a wide range of things.


Which is why I love dejar, it is so very useful :)


please... so condescending


This sentence has me struggling between using ME and YO.


"I had left myself without bread!" Not accepted and yet probably the most accurate translation! I know, not exactly brilliant English, a little awkward. But acceptable?


But when you hover over quedado, "run out of" is not one of the options.


If habia is I/he/she/it, how do you tell the dif?


Because of the "me" in from of había. This means había is reflexive and telling you that it is "yo" and not another pronoun. Do research on reflexive verbs.


Thanks, this link is very helpful.


So, ¿Te has quedado sin azúcar? means, Have you run out of sugar? Is that right?


Yes, Violines, exactly.


Is this for real? Does Duolingo really think that "I had been without bread" and "I had gone without bread" don't mean exactly the same thing?


If so, then what is the meaning of "yo había quedado sin pan"???


I assume "Yo habia quedado sin pan" is incorreect. Why use "Me" and not "Yo"?


I put "I had stayed without bread" (which doesn't make sense in English) and it accepted it. Which it probably shouldn't have.


this is such an ackward section. I got it wrong the first time, and I got it wrong the second time and I again got it wrong the third time. I am not really good at learning stuff by heart because I am at an age when senior moments are more common than not.


It would really help if duolingo would just simply diagram each sentence on each of these discussion pages right under the translation. The crowd sourcing is good, but it can be confusing not to have some definitive explanation, too. Our discussions would still be very useful.


It would be fantastic, but a logistical nightmare. I've summarised a few of the more debated sentences and it is pretty time consuming so I can understand why DL hasn't undertaken the task. I have done a summary of this one though if you want to check it out. It's a response to Xstof's comment on Wonderboy's starter comment 5 from the top (at present).


I see your response, jellonz. It is very helpful! ¡Gracias! So many of you take the time to explain some of this grammar and that is wonderful! We all really appreciate it. Thanks again; have a lingot!


De nada Susanna. Yep, DL could use a generic translation tool to diagram the translation process, but if you are familiar with translation programs the flaw in this idea is immediately apparent :) Maybe one day the programs will be accurate enough, but for now people must do it, and since it isn't a viable option for the DL staff it falls on the community. Gracias por el lingot.


"I had stayed without bread"


I did not understand this sentence so I wrote "I had stayed without bread." which even as I wrote it I knew it was wrong. However Duolingo took it as being correct. Shocked me. Know where did I understand it to read "I had run out of bread." Anyway just my little comment.


Why is it Me and not Yo.


The "me" is from the pronominal verb "quedarse" and is a necessary part of "quedarse sin / to run out of". If you want you could include the subject pronoun as well, "Yo me había quedado sin pan", but it would be redundant.


This translation gets 2 thumbs way down! I put "I have stayed without bread" knowing that it was waaaaaaay off because it made absolutely no sense but it was "I HAD stayed without bread" leaving me utterly speechless because I've never heard that sentence in my entire life. They should remove this sentence totally or I'll forget the English that I do know.


La palabra stay no se puede usar aquí?


" I was out of bread" (?)


Stella sud, I may be answering an old post, so if you're way past this now, sorry - but, other forum users may benefit.

"Was" is simple past. The lesson wanted you to choose and conjugate the auxiliary verb había with the reflexive verb quedarse. "I had been left without bread" is accepted, and could be describing something as simple as an inconsiderate roommate (and the stores were closed!), or even torture, if you were chained to a wall in a cave for a week, but then you were rescued! ;-)

I think the confusing, idiomatic part may be entirely the fault of English, due to the phrase "running out of" something as opposed to being left without something, but it sure doesn't have anything to do with running! Ha! Maybe other languages have something similar as a common meaning, too (a car running out of gas, a worker running out of energy, a scuba diver running out of oxygen, etc.).

What phrase does your language use for being "out of" something, forum folks? I am just curious, if you wish to comment!


after one almost identical example i know the meaning and how to translate the sentence but i'm not shure if i understand what is the subject of this sentence is "yo" or is it "pan"


They translated this exact sentence as "i had been left without bread" another time it was shown.


I interpreted it as "i had been out of bread" implying ( but now i have some) - why is that incorrect


how would you say "he left me without bread"?


it would say " él me dejó sin pan"


I would have thought that "(Yo) habia quedado sin..." would translate "I left without..." and "(El) me habia quedado sin..." would be "he left me without.." but I know this is wrong. And sometimes I see "se" in front of the verb. So can it get more confusing? Can someone set it straight?


What is the diference between i have been without vs. I had been without? Should these both carry the same meaning? Is it the speakers intention to mean they were without bread but now have bread or are still without bread?


"I have ..." is present perfect tense, which is used to say something has happened at an unspecified time before now. "I had ..." is past perfect, which is used to say something has happened before another action, or specific time, in the past. Eg: "I have been swimming [before now]" or "I had been swimming [before it started to rain]". Note that with "I had ..." the clause stating the other action or time is very often omitted and is provided by context. As for your examples, the former is more common, but not exclusive. "I had ..." often carries the idea that the event is now concluded and the situation changed, but this is not necessarily the case. eg: "I had been without bread [before I married a baker]." Maybe you are still married to the baker and enjoying a fresh loaf every morning, or maybe you are now divorced and once again on a bread free diet. Either works.


Is it correct to say "I had went without bread"?

I put that, but it was marked as incorrect and the suggested translation was "I had gone without bread."


...had went...is really wrong, and ...had gone...is right.


Can you please explain why?


Same reason you recently posted: "So Google was right....and quite obviously I would have been wrong.“ Note you did not say would have was wrong. The past participle is used for these compound tenses.


MissSpell, thanks...I love verb conjugation as much as the next guy, but perhaps the next guy really was your intended recipient ;-)



Great chart! Love to have it in Spanish!


Ha ha, great example! ;) All right, that explains it. Thank you! :)


I wrote "he had left me without bread". Is there any reason why it's wrong?


Hmm I was thinking about odd reflexive Spanish phrases till it occurred to me how bizarre the English phrase is.. to run out of a building ... to run out of bread...pity ESL learners!


I put my phone in Spanish,and right now it informs me that "Queda un 7% de batería". How do you say " charger"? lol


I had left myself without bread.


I had stayed without bread !!!! What!!!!?????? This is what duo is telling me is correct in English!......errr No. I am English. I had no bread. I ran out of bread. But i had stayed without bread.....no !


I was left without bread.


Como se supone que lo traduzca si no ha sido ya explicado. Osea de donde "run"?


I had ended up without bread - why was my answer not accepted as correct?


I think this is the weirdest Duolingo phrase I've come across so far.


quedado sounds like 'stayed' -'stayed' without bread ?????


Shouldn't be I have ran out of bread?


"Había"= "had." And, the past participle of "run" is also "run" in English.


quedarse sin algo= run out of something


At this moment in life, I can particularly relate to this sentence.


Why is, "I had left without bread," wrong? I don't see anyone asking and I don't know. Thank you.


While "quedarse" can mean "to be left," it doesn't mean "left" in the sense of "went". I think your sentence would be better expressed as "Me había dejado/ido sin pan."


"I had wound up without bread" was not accepted. Should it be?


"Wound up" is an English expression that can have many meanings: it can describe a clock or a nervous person; it can be what a pitcher did before throwing the ball; it can be what you've done to a hose, rope, or cable, etc.; it can be used to relate the outcome of an action or situation; and probably at least half a dozen other things. All of these different meanings would require a different verb in Spanish. So, no, I don't think DL should have accepted it.


Duo translated this as "I had stayed without bread" for me, which really made no sense...


I had the same answer, I have a screen shot of it saved.


Is I had no bread left ok?


I had been left without bread


So quedado means "run out of", "kept", "been located" and "stayed"? In other words whatever it is supposed to mean?


Quedar has a few uses, but that's what prepositions are for: Quedarse sin = Run out of. We just have to learn the different meanings some Spanish verbs have when accompanied by certain prepositions. English is much worse:

Run out of bread.
Run out of the house.
Run up the flag.
Run down the battery.
Run over the dog.
Run over what was said.
Run back over it again.
Run back to her.
Run through the park.
Run through with a sword.
Run behind the bush.
Run behind at work.
Run off with the loot.
Run away from prison.
Run across a bargain.
Run into an old friend.
Run into a brick wall.
Run into the house.
Run for the door.
Run for office.

I could go on, but hopefully that makes the point.


I put "I had been left without bread" and it was accepted, but "run out of" makes more sense! Thanks all.


I had no bread left...why is this marked wrong?


I had no bread left... why is this marked wrong?


what about: "I had ran out of bread"


Who could guess....


"Me habia" would indicate the reflexive form of the verb. Thus, "I had left myself without bread " should be acceptable.


I had no bread left marked wrong


why is it wrong to say 'I had no bread left'?


agreed. this sentence makes little sense w/o context


Disagree. With no context at all, it still means: I ran out of bread, I was left with no bread, I was left without bread. It is not one of DL's wonky sentences.


I agree, it's weird but with some thought I managed to get it correct.


Estoy de acuerdo contigo Melita2. I would also add "I had been without bread" or "I had gone without bread". Por ejemplo: Me habia quedado sin pan por dos semanas. "I had gone without bread for two weeks".


Why not is YO habia quedado sin pan?


I interpreted it literally as "I had remained without bread"; not one english speaker would say that, so I chose "I had to go without bread" but was marked wrong. Any comments?


It is equally correct in English to say I had no bread left. Perhaps the americans are unfamiliar with this.


I understand that in normal language use the specific meaning would be made clear by the context. Otherwise you can state which in the sentence.


Somebody left me without bread. "me, not I "


I had found myself without bread.


I was left without bread?


This part makes me nut more over. T.T


It's soooooo frustrating to be presented options that don't actually work. Is this supposed to be learning through intentional mistakes?


No, this is called "guess your way through this!" game. But I agree, it is very frustrating to not be given a clue at all. The clues given had nothing to do with the right answer. But Diolingo does this all the time!


To much emphasis on spelling


That's just golden :)


Waht iz gowldehnn? Ahr yooh sayng sumtheeng uhbowt sspehleeng?


It's like "I had remained myself without bread." How awkward a way to put it...


I had remained breadless


I like this translation. Let's start a campaign to make "breadless" a word.


this may be true but in a sentence, ( think (duolingo)) me habia quandado sin pan, how is one to know? IMHO each should be accepted but it is not

Learn Spanish in just 5 minutes a day. For free.