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"I hear you perfectly."

Translation:Te oigo perfectamente.

December 22, 2012

32 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Rinnaldo

I have not learned this sentence structure before. I assume "los" is modifying a dropped "ustedes" but I find it very confusing. Some clarification before I was asked to choose it would have been nice.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luis

Yes, the full sentence would be "Los oigo a ustedes prefectamente", but it is prefectly fine to drop "a ustedes".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/michisjourdi

It would be nice if the full sentences were introduced the first time so that we understand a little better.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/stigg426

But wouldn't it be "Yo LES oigo"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luis

This is a regional variation. In Spain, it is usually "yo les oigo", whereas in Latin America it is "yo los oigo". There is some contention as to which is "more correct", but the Real Academia Española (the agreed upon authority of the Spanish language) considers "los oigo" more proper.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/swingophelia

Is there any difference in meaning if "perfectamente" is immediately after the verb, versus at the end?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/billcurt

You're correct. 'Los' is what's called a Direct Object Pronoun. Here's a great article explaining it clearly http://studyspanish.com/lessons/dopro1.htm


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/michisjourdi

Gracias for the article.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/undeadgoat

If a person is still struggling with this, it has now been explained in "Tips and notes."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AnonNini

The system also accepted te oigo perfectamente. Since it didn't specify it was a formal you this is also acceptable.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/klaakan

Mine was also accepted and if I didn't look at the comments every time, I probably wouldn't have caught the alternate You-plural. Thanks, y'all.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/cdntinpusher

Why would "Te oigo a usted perfectamente." not be correct?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luis

It is not correct because you're mixing two types of "you". "Te" is informal, and "usted" is formal.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/cdntinpusher

Thank you, Luis. And just for further clarification, so I can wrap my head around the rules, (because I really do find these "discussions" help with understanding), how about "Te oigo a tú perfectamente." I understand "a tú" may be redundant but is it technically correct?. Thanks again.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luis

It would be "a ti": "The oigo a ti perfectamente". Much like in English "he" changes to "him" (you wouldn't say "I hear he perfectly"), in Spanish "tú" changes to "ti".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Feelingthefoo

Why is it 'La oigo' and not 'Le oigo'? Isn't La femine? And I thought Le could be used for all forms (him, her, you, it) as long as you would add the form at the end of the sentence


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ptngan

I've seen 'le' used in some examples to mean 'you'. Could this be translated as 'Le oigo perfectamente'?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luis

This construction is commonly used in Spain, and called "leísmo". People everywhere will understand what you mean, but it is not technically considered proper.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/dougconnah

Do the leísmists (or whatever they may be called) understand it when someone uses "la?" Do they ever get corrected the way someone who says "between he and I" might get corrected? Just curious.


[deactivated user]

    What is the difference between 'ti' and 'te'? Thank you :)


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/michisjourdi

    http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/133127/what-is-the-difference-between-te-tu-ti- Here's a link that explains that difference pretty well.

    To simplify though, allow me to explain the sentence through a literal translation.

    Te oigo perfectamente a ti.

    Te you oigo I hear perfectamente perfectly a to ti you.

    The grammar structure of Te oigo perfectamente is something like "to you I hear perfectly"

    and Te oigo perfectamente a ti would be like "to you I hear perfectly to you"

    Yes, it's redundant. It's usually used for emphasis.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RockinAbs

    Why was "Yo le oigo a usted perfectamente bien" marked wrong? What's the difference between "le" and "lo"? I thought le was for people whereas 'lo' was for objects, but I guess I was wrong there...


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/RockinAbs

    An alternate translation was "Yo lo oigo a usted perfectamente bien." by the way...


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/4dogs

    Could someone please explain more about why it would be "Yo lo oigo perfectamente a usted" versus "Yo le oigo perfectamente a usted"


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TezraB

    So, is le wrong because it's only used for he? Do I have to use lo with usted?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/kevinp2k13

    Why is "oigo te perfectamente" wrong?


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luis

    In Spanish the object pronoun comes before the verb.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/TezraB

    It's backwards in Spanish. Just as saying "I you hear perfectly" would be backwards in English.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LaLangosta

    Is it acceptable for the adverb to come first in the sentence? "Perfectamente te oigo" was marked incorrect.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Luis

    This would not be natural Spanish, much like "Perfectly, I hear you" is not natural English.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/LaLangosta

    Ok thanks for the clarification. I wasn't sure as some languages are much more flexible with word order.


    https://www.duolingo.com/profile/zorba333

    It would be helpful if the author would indicate if "you" is sugular or plural? Such as "you" (plural)

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