"I hear you perfectly."
Translation:Te oigo perfectamente.
I have not learned this sentence structure before. I assume "los" is modifying a dropped "ustedes" but I find it very confusing. Some clarification before I was asked to choose it would have been nice.
It would be nice if the full sentences were introduced the first time so that we understand a little better.
This is a regional variation. In Spain, it is usually "yo les oigo", whereas in Latin America it is "yo los oigo". There is some contention as to which is "more correct", but the Real Academia Española (the agreed upon authority of the Spanish language) considers "los oigo" more proper.
Is there any difference in meaning if "perfectamente" is immediately after the verb, versus at the end?
If a person is still struggling with this, it has now been explained in "Tips and notes."
The system also accepted te oigo perfectamente. Since it didn't specify it was a formal you this is also acceptable.
Mine was also accepted and if I didn't look at the comments every time, I probably wouldn't have caught the alternate You-plural. Thanks, y'all.
Thank you, Luis. And just for further clarification, so I can wrap my head around the rules, (because I really do find these "discussions" help with understanding), how about "Te oigo a tú perfectamente." I understand "a tú" may be redundant but is it technically correct?. Thanks again.
Why is it 'La oigo' and not 'Le oigo'? Isn't La femine? And I thought Le could be used for all forms (him, her, you, it) as long as you would add the form at the end of the sentence
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/133127/what-is-the-difference-between-te-tu-ti- Here's a link that explains that difference pretty well.
To simplify though, allow me to explain the sentence through a literal translation.
Te oigo perfectamente a ti.
Te you oigo I hear perfectamente perfectly a to ti you.
The grammar structure of Te oigo perfectamente is something like "to you I hear perfectly"
and Te oigo perfectamente a ti would be like "to you I hear perfectly to you"
Yes, it's redundant. It's usually used for emphasis.
I've seen 'le' used in some examples to mean 'you'. Could this be translated as 'Le oigo perfectamente'?
Do the leísmists (or whatever they may be called) understand it when someone uses "la?" Do they ever get corrected the way someone who says "between he and I" might get corrected? Just curious.
Why was "Yo le oigo a usted perfectamente bien" marked wrong? What's the difference between "le" and "lo"? I thought le was for people whereas 'lo' was for objects, but I guess I was wrong there...
An alternate translation was "Yo lo oigo a usted perfectamente bien." by the way...
Could someone please explain more about why it would be "Yo lo oigo perfectamente a usted" versus "Yo le oigo perfectamente a usted"
It's backwards in Spanish. Just as saying "I you hear perfectly" would be backwards in English.
Is it acceptable for the adverb to come first in the sentence? "Perfectamente te oigo" was marked incorrect.
Ok thanks for the clarification. I wasn't sure as some languages are much more flexible with word order.