"I hear you perfectly."
Translation:Te oigo perfectamente.
This is a regional variation. In Spain, it is usually "yo les oigo", whereas in Latin America it is "yo los oigo". There is some contention as to which is "more correct", but the Real Academia Española (the agreed upon authority of the Spanish language) considers "los oigo" more proper.
Thank you, Luis. And just for further clarification, so I can wrap my head around the rules, (because I really do find these "discussions" help with understanding), how about "Te oigo a tú perfectamente." I understand "a tú" may be redundant but is it technically correct?. Thanks again.
http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/133127/what-is-the-difference-between-te-tu-ti- Here's a link that explains that difference pretty well.
To simplify though, allow me to explain the sentence through a literal translation.
Te oigo perfectamente a ti.
Te you oigo I hear perfectamente perfectly a to ti you.
The grammar structure of Te oigo perfectamente is something like "to you I hear perfectly"
and Te oigo perfectamente a ti would be like "to you I hear perfectly to you"
Yes, it's redundant. It's usually used for emphasis.