Would not "My ball" meaning "I am going to catch/head/kick the ball not you" be a more common phrase?
"My ball" would be "(benim) topum" which is not the translation for the sentence above.
No, but jzldch is correct in that "my ball" and "top bende" would be used in the same situation (during the match, someone is calling out that they will take the ball)
because that would be "I have his ball".
In "top bende", top is the subject and cannot be in the accusative case.
I made this mistake before, but this time "top" is not the subject if the meaning is "I have the ball." So the better translation I suppose is "The ball is with me."
It is the subject in the Turkish sentence :) You have the logic right though...in Turkish you say something like "The ball it at/on me"
How come it is not in the accusative(direct object) while it is translated into (I have THE BALL)! Do you mean it should be THE BALL(subject) is with me ?
You're right, literally it is 'the ball is with me', so in Turkish 'top' is the subject (nominative case) and will not be the accusative case although it is translated into a construction in English where 'ball' is in the accusative case.
That would be 'Top benim.'. The rest would be as:
Top senin: The ball is yours(singular).
Top onun: The ball is hers/his.
Top bizim: The ball is ours.
Top sizin: The ball is yours(plural).
Top onların: The ball is theirs.